Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following
respect(s):
A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy
B. It frequently produces alopecia
C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

The rare but characteristic adverse effect of HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is: A. Onycolysis B. Myopathy C. Alopecia D. Oculomucocutaneous syndrome

Description : The rare but characteristic adverse effect of HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is: A. Onycolysis B. Myopathy C. Alopecia D. Oculomucocutaneous syndrome

Last Answer : B. Myopathy

Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Description : Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Last Answer : C. It does not have antiandrogenic action

Fluphenazine differs from chlorpromazine in the following respects except: A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy B. It is less sedative C. It is less likely to precipitate seizures in epileptics D. It causes more prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Description : Fluphenazine differs from chlorpromazine in the following respects except: A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy B. It is less sedative C. It is less likely to precipitate seizures in epileptics D. It causes more prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Last Answer : A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy

Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Description : Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) ... the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Last Answer : a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients.

Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

The following is true of cyclophosphamide except: A. It is highly reactive and a vesicant on contact B. It is a prodrug C. It has marked immunosuppressant property D. It frequently causes alopecia and cystitis

Description : The following is true of cyclophosphamide except: A. It is highly reactive and a vesicant on contact B. It is a prodrug C. It has marked immunosuppressant property D. It frequently causes alopecia and cystitis

Last Answer : A. It is highly reactive and a vesicant on contac

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Description : Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Last Answer : C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects

Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation

The following cytotoxic drug acts by inhibiting depolymerization of tubulin and thus producing abnormal arrays of microtubules: A. Paclitaxel B. Vinblastine C. Etoposide D. Mitoxantrone (p. 774) 60.9 C 60.10 B 60.11 D 60.12 A Ai

Description : The following cytotoxic drug acts by inhibiting depolymerization of tubulin and thus producing abnormal arrays of microtubules: A. Paclitaxel B. Vinblastine C. Etoposide D. Mitoxantrone (p. 774) 60.9 C 60.10 B 60.11 D 60.12 A Ai

Last Answer : A. Paclitaxel

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Piperacillin differs from carbenicillin in the following respect(s): A. It is more active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. It is active against Klebsiella as well C. It is acid resistant D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Piperacillin differs from carbenicillin in the following respect(s): A. It is more active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. It is active against Klebsiella as well C. It is acid resistant D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The 'new formula' WHO-ORS differs from the older 'standard formula' WHO-ORS in the following respect(s): A. It has lower Na+ ion and glucose concentration B. It has higher K+ ion concentration C. It has no basic salt D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : The 'new formula' WHO-ORS differs from the older 'standard formula' WHO-ORS in the following respect(s): A. It has lower Na+ ion and glucose concentration B. It has higher K+ ion concentration C. It has no basic salt D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : A. It has lower Na+ ion and glucose concentration

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Morphine analgesia differs from that produced by aspirin in the following respect(s): A. It has a higher ceiling B. It covers both perception as well as psychic processing of the pain C. Visceral and ischaemic pain is relieved better than somatic inflammatory pain D. All of the above are correct

Description : Morphine analgesia differs from that produced by aspirin in the following respect(s): A. It has a higher ceiling B. It covers both perception as well as psychic processing of the pain C. Visceral and ischaemic pain is relieved better than somatic inflammatory pain D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate

Description : Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate

Last Answer : D. 5-Fluorouracil

The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine

Description : The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine

Last Answer : B. Vincristine

The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Description : The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Last Answer : D. Cisplatin

Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure than after it C. It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity

What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs

Description : What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs

Last Answer : B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression

Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Description : Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia

Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Description : Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia

The most important toxicity of amphotericin B is: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Neurotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Bone marrow depression

Description : The most important toxicity of amphotericin B is: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Neurotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Bone marrow depression

Last Answer : A. Nephrotoxicity

Hepatitis with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin: A. Erythromycin base B. Erythromycin stearate C. Erythromycin estolate D. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Description : Hepatitis with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin: A. Erythromycin base B. Erythromycin stearate C. Erythromycin estolate D. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Last Answer : C. Erythromycin estolate

yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels

Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Description : Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Entacapone differs from tolcapone in the following respect/respects: A. It is shorter acting B. It acts only by inhibiting peripheral metabolism of levodopa C. It is not hepatotoxic D. All of the above are correct

Description : Entacapone differs from tolcapone in the following respect/respects: A. It is shorter acting B. It acts only by inhibiting peripheral metabolism of levodopa C. It is not hepatotoxic D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound

The following adverse effect(s) of phenytoin is/are related to high plasma drug concentration: A. Ataxia B. Hirsutism C. Gum hyperplasia D. All of the above

Description : The following adverse effect(s) of phenytoin is/are related to high plasma drug concentration: A. Ataxia B. Hirsutism C. Gum hyperplasia D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Ataxia

Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that: A. It cannot be injected i.v. B. It is not excreted in urine C. It is not bound to transferrin in plasma D. It produces fewer side effects

Description : Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that: A. It cannot be injected i.v. B. It is not excreted in urine C. It is not bound to transferrin in plasma D. It produces fewer side effects

Last Answer : A. It cannot be injected i.v

Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood concentrations of the local anaesthetic are lower after epidural anaesthesia D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

The most prominent and dose related side effect of salbutamol is: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Muscle tremor C. Hyperglycaemia D. Central nervous system stimulation

Description : The most prominent and dose related side effect of salbutamol is: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Muscle tremor C. Hyperglycaemia D. Central nervous system stimulation

Last Answer : B. Muscle tremor

Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Description : Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Description : The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Last Answer : A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs

The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic drug therapy which does not respond to central anticholinergics is: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Rabbit syndrome D. Tardive dyskinesia

Description : The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic drug therapy which does not respond to central anticholinergics is: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Rabbit syndrome D. Tardive dyskinesia

Last Answer : D. Tardive dyskinesia

The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia

Description : The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia

Last Answer : B. Tardive dyskinesia

The following adverse effect of levodopa is not minimised by combining it with carbidopa: A. Involuntary movements B. Nausea and vomiting C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. ‘On-off ’ effect

Description : The following adverse effect of levodopa is not minimised by combining it with carbidopa: A. Involuntary movements B. Nausea and vomiting C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. ‘On-off ’ effect

Last Answer : A. Involuntary movements

Sodium valproate should be used with caution in young children because they are particularly at risk of developing the following adverse effect: A. Hepatitis B. Loss of hair C. Anorexia D. Tremor

Description : Sodium valproate should be used with caution in young children because they are particularly at risk of developing the following adverse effect: A. Hepatitis B. Loss of hair C. Anorexia D. Tremor

Last Answer : A. Hepatitis

The following androgen does not produce cholestatic jaundice as an adverse effect: A. Testosterone propionate B. Methyl testosterone C. Fluoxymesterone D. Stanozolo

Description : The following androgen does not produce cholestatic jaundice as an adverse effect: A. Testosterone propionate B. Methyl testosterone C. Fluoxymesterone D. Stanozolo

Last Answer : A. Testosterone propionate

The following adverse effect of corticosteroids is mainly due to their mineralocorticoid action: A. Osteoporosis B. Rise in blood pressure C. ‘Moon face’ D. Increased susceptibility to infection

Description : The following adverse effect of corticosteroids is mainly due to their mineralocorticoid action: A. Osteoporosis B. Rise in blood pressure C. ‘Moon face’ D. Increased susceptibility to infection

Last Answer : B. Rise in blood pressure

Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It needs pretreatment fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Description : Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It ... fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Last Answer : A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects

Pentazocine differs from morphine in that: A. It is inactive by the oral route B. It does not produce physical dependence C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect D. Its action is not blocked by naloxone

Description : Pentazocine differs from morphine in that: A. It is inactive by the oral route B. It does not produce physical dependence C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect D. Its action is not blocked by naloxone

Last Answer : C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effec

Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action

Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action

Last Answer : C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension

In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of action C. It activates dopamine D2 receptors, with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

Description : In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of ... with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

Last Answer : D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effects

__________ side effect is seen during the treatment with Levodopa a) Dyskinesias b) Bone marrow depression c) Thombocytopenia d) Impotence

Description : __________ side effect is seen during the treatment with Levodopa a) Dyskinesias b) Bone marrow depression c) Thombocytopenia d) Impotence

Last Answer : a) Dyskinesias 

Select the antiepileptic drug that in addition is a preferred treatment for post herpetic neuralgia and pain due to diabetic neuropathy: A. Carbamazepine B. Gabapentin C. Lamotrigine D. Primidone

Description : Select the antiepileptic drug that in addition is a preferred treatment for post herpetic neuralgia and pain due to diabetic neuropathy: A. Carbamazepine B. Gabapentin C. Lamotrigine D. Primidone

Last Answer : B. Gabapentin