The following drug is used to reverse the CNS depression produced by diazepam: A. Dexamphetamine B. Doxapram C. Physostigmine D. Flumazenil

The following drug is used to reverse the CNS
depression produced by diazepam:
A. Dexamphetamine
B. Doxapram
C. Physostigmine
D. Flumazenil
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Flumazenil
by

Related questions

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Select the drug that antagonises diazepam action noncompetitively: A. Adenosine B. Flumazenil C. Bicuculline D. Valproic acid

Description : Select the drug that antagonises diazepam action noncompetitively: A. Adenosine B. Flumazenil C. Bicuculline D. Valproic acid

Last Answer : C. Bicuculline

Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo

Description : Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo

Last Answer : D. Propofol

The following drug has been used to stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centres as an expedient measure, because it has the least propensity to induce convulsions: A. Pentylenetetrazole B. Doxapram C. Bicuculline D. Amphetamine

Description : The following drug has been used to stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centres as an expedient measure, because it has the least propensity to induce convulsions: A. Pentylenetetrazole B. Doxapram C. Bicuculline D. Amphetamine

Last Answer : B. Doxapram

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

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Last Answer : B. Zolpidem

The following is a competitive antagonist of GABA but a noncompetitive antagonist of diazepam: A. Picrotoxin B. Muscimol C. Flumazenil D. Bicuculline

Description : The following is a competitive antagonist of GABA but a noncompetitive antagonist of diazepam: A. Picrotoxin B. Muscimol C. Flumazenil D. Bicuculline

Last Answer : D. Bicuculline

The following is a competitive antagonist of GABA but a noncompetitive antagonist of diazepam: A. Picrotoxin B. Muscimol C. Flumazenil D. Bicuculline

Description : The following is a competitive antagonist of GABA but a noncompetitive antagonist of diazepam: A. Picrotoxin B. Muscimol C. Flumazenil D. Bicuculline

Last Answer : D. Bicuculline

The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression

Description : The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression

Last Answer : B. Poor analgesia

Dexamphetamine produces an apparently paradoxical effect in: A. Addicts B. Athletes C. Parkinsonian patients D. Hyperkinetic children

Description : Dexamphetamine produces an apparently paradoxical effect in: A. Addicts B. Athletes C. Parkinsonian patients D. Hyperkinetic children

Last Answer : Hyperkinetic children

Dexamphetamine produces an apparently paradoxical effect in: A. Addicts B. Athletes C. Parkinsonian patients D. Hyperkinetic children

Description : Dexamphetamine produces an apparently paradoxical effect in: A. Addicts B. Athletes C. Parkinsonian patients D. Hyperkinetic children

Last Answer : . Hyperkinetic children

elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

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Last Answer : C. Buspirone

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects

Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic

Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam

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Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine

The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone

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The preferred drug for status epilepticus is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone D. Rectal diazepam

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Last Answer : A. Intravenous diazepam

A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and do not give any anticonvulsant drug B. Continuous phenobarbitone prophylaxis till the age of 10 years C. Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

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The preferred drug for suppressing febrile convulsions is: A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone B. Intravenous phenytoin C. Rectal diazepam D. Oral sodium valproate

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The drug used for controlling tetany is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intramuscular vitamin D C. Intravenous calcium gluconate D. Intravenous calcitonin

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Last Answer : C. Intravenous calcium gluconate

Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant actions C. The BZD receptor is homogeneous at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones

A 92-year-old woman is an inpatient in the geriatric unit. She has multivascular dementia. She is more confused and agitated. She has been given lorazepam 4 mg intramuscularly. She is now unconscious with a generalized tonic clonic seizure and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. Which of the following could be used to reverse the effects of the lorazepam? A. Activated charcoal B. Flumazenil C. N-acetyl cysteine D. Naloxone E. Protamine sulphate

Description : A 92-year-old woman is an inpatient in the geriatric unit. She has multivascular dementia. She is more confused and agitated. She has been given lorazepam 4 mg intramuscularly. She is now unconscious ... A. Activated charcoal B. Flumazenil C. N-acetyl cysteine D. Naloxone E. Protamine sulphate 

Last Answer : B. Flumazenil 

The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

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The following is a competitive type of enzyme inhibitor: A. Acetazolamide B. Disulfiram C. Physostigmine D. Theophylline

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The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

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Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

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As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

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Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action

Which of the following is not a CNS depressant but increases the tendency to fall asleep at night: A. Pyridoxine B. Diphenhydramine C. Melatonin D. Ethanol

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Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of: A. Continuous use of agonists B. Continuous use of antagonists C. Chronic use of CNS depressants D. Denervation

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Last Answer : A. Continuous use of agonists

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

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Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the following except: A. Olanzapine B. Diazepam C. Sodium valproate D. Lamotrigine

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Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action

Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

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Diazepam is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy B. Tetanus C. Febrile convulsions D. Cardiac catheterization

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Last Answer : B. Rosiglitazone

In a comatose patient suspected of poisoning, which of the following findings would be against the drug being morphine: A. Mydriasis B. Marked respiratory depression C. Cyanosis D. Fall in blood pressure

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A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long

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Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

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