elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither
reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces
any overt CNS effect:
A. Oxazepam
B. Thioproperazine
C. Buspirone
D. Chlordiazepoxide
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Buspirone
by

Related questions

The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. It produces physical dependence and suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

additional mild antidepressant property: A. Chlordiazepoxide B. Oxazepam C. Alprazolam D. Lorazepa

Description : additional mild antidepressant property: A. Chlordiazepoxide B. Oxazepam C. Alprazolam D. Lorazepa

Last Answer : C. Alprazolam

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam

Description : Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine

The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers C. It produces fewer side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

Description : The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding ... side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

Last Answer : B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers

The following drugs exert their action through the GABAA-benzodiazepine–receptor Cl¯ channel complex except: A. Baclofen B. Zolpidem C. Bicuculline D. Phenobarbitone

Description : The following drugs exert their action through the GABAA-benzodiazepine–receptor Cl¯ channel complex except: A. Baclofen B. Zolpidem C. Bicuculline D. Phenobarbitone

Last Answer : A. Baclofen

The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the benzodiazepine receptor C. Increase the frequency of chloride channel opening without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Description : The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the ... without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Last Answer : D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Description : The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Last Answer : D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Description : The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Last Answer : DD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Select the drug that has been found to reduce alcohol craving and chances of resumed heavy drinking by alcoholics after they have undergone a detoxification programme: A. Chlordiazepoxide B. Chlorpromazine C. Methadone D. Naltrexone

Description : Select the drug that has been found to reduce alcohol craving and chances of resumed heavy drinking by alcoholics after they have undergone a detoxification programme: A. Chlordiazepoxide B. Chlorpromazine C. Methadone D. Naltrexone

Last Answer : D. Naltrexone

Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Description : Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Last Answer : C. It does not have antiandrogenic action

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

Last Answer : B. Zolpidem

The constellation of side effects consisting of thirst, polyuria, looseness of stools and fine tremors is characteristically associated with the following psychotropic drug: A. Amitriptyline B. Lithium carbonate C. Lorazepam D. Buspirone

Description : The constellation of side effects consisting of thirst, polyuria, looseness of stools and fine tremors is characteristically associated with the following psychotropic drug: A. Amitriptyline B. Lithium carbonate C. Lorazepam D. Buspirone

Last Answer : B. Lithium carbonate

Select the psychotropic drug having a narrow safety margin: A. Chlorpromazine B. Buspirone C. Lithium carbonate D. Fluoxetine

Description : Select the psychotropic drug having a narrow safety margin: A. Chlorpromazine B. Buspirone C. Lithium carbonate D. Fluoxetine

Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Description : Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Last Answer : A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia

Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Description : Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Last Answer : A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia

Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Description : Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Last Answer : A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia

Select the drug that is neither bronchodilator nor antiinflammatory, but has antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizing activity: A. Sodium cromoglycate B. Ketotifen C. Beclomethasone dipropionate D. Chlorpheniramine

Description : Select the drug that is neither bronchodilator nor antiinflammatory, but has antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizing activity: A. Sodium cromoglycate B. Ketotifen C. Beclomethasone dipropionate D. Chlorpheniramine

Last Answer : B. Ketotifen

elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Description : elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : B. Proguanil + Chloroquine

The following drug is used to reverse the CNS depression produced by diazepam: A. Dexamphetamine B. Doxapram C. Physostigmine D. Flumazenil

Description : The following drug is used to reverse the CNS depression produced by diazepam: A. Dexamphetamine B. Doxapram C. Physostigmine D. Flumazenil

Last Answer : D. Flumazenil

Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects

Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic

The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist: A. Buspirone B. Ondansetron C. Sumatriptan D. α-methyl 5-HT

Description : The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist: A. Buspirone B. Ondansetron C. Sumatriptan D. α-methyl 5-HT

Last Answer : C. Sumatriptan

Which of the following is a nonsedative anxiolytic: A. Chlorpromazine B. Buspirone C. Hydroxyzine D. Alprazolam

Description : Which of the following is a nonsedative anxiolytic: A. Chlorpromazine B. Buspirone C. Hydroxyzine D. Alprazolam

Last Answer : B. Buspirone

The following is a selective 5-HT4 agonist: A. Buspirone B. Sumatriptan C. Cisapride D. Clozapine

Description : The following is a selective 5-HT4 agonist: A. Buspirone B. Sumatriptan C. Cisapride D. Clozapine

Last Answer : C. Cisapride

The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Description : The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Last Answer : D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic

Description : Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic

Last Answer : D. Antiepileptic

Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances on discontinuation C. It does not act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Description : Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances ... act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Last Answer : C. It does not act by potentiating GABA

The following is a very potent and short acting benzodiazepine whose use as hypnotic has been noted to cause psychiatric disturbances in some cases: A. Flurazepam B. Nitrazepam C. Temazepam D. Triazolam

Description : The following is a very potent and short acting benzodiazepine whose use as hypnotic has been noted to cause psychiatric disturbances in some cases: A. Flurazepam B. Nitrazepam C. Temazepam D. Triazolam

Last Answer : D. Triazolam

Choose the correct statement about colloidal bismuth subcitrate: A. It causes prolonged neutralization of gastric acid B. It has anti-H.pylori activity C. It relieves peptic ulcer pain promptly D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about colloidal bismuth subcitrate: A. It causes prolonged neutralization of gastric acid B. It has anti-H.pylori activity C. It relieves peptic ulcer pain promptly D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : B. It has anti-H.pylori activity

Digoxin affords the following benefit/benefits in CHF: A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms B. Reverses the pathological changes of CHF C. Prolongs survival of CHF patients D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : Digoxin affords the following benefit/benefits in CHF: A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms B. Reverses the pathological changes of CHF C. Prolongs survival of CHF patients D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Last Answer : A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms

Ergotamine relieves migraine by: A. Blocking vascular α adrenergic receptors B. Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors C. Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Description : Ergotamine relieves migraine by: A. Blocking vascular α adrenergic receptors B. Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors C. Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Last Answer : D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

What is true of docetaxel: A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer B. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used for breast cancer C. It is effective only in estrogen receptor positive breast cancer D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : What is true of docetaxel: A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer B. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used for breast cancer C. It is effective only in estrogen receptor positive breast cancer D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer

Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation and LDLreceptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated receptor α: A. Lovastatin B. Atorvastatin C. Bezafibrate D. Nicotinic acid

Description : Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation and LDLreceptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated receptor α: A. Lovastatin B. Atorvastatin C. Bezafibrate D. Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : C. Bezafibrate

The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor

Description : The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor

Last Answer : B. Serotonin

Which of the following is not a CNS depressant but increases the tendency to fall asleep at night: A. Pyridoxine B. Diphenhydramine C. Melatonin D. Ethanol

Description : Which of the following is not a CNS depressant but increases the tendency to fall asleep at night: A. Pyridoxine B. Diphenhydramine C. Melatonin D. Ethanol

Last Answer : C. Melatonin

The tubular and dorsal nervous system of chordates is related to the cephalization in these animals and to bilateral symmetry. The presence of neural integrating centers with concentration of neurons in the brains and the spinal cord (central nervous system, CNS) allowed the increase of the interaction complexity between these animals and the environment. Receptor (afferent conduction) and efferent (motor, regulatory and behavioral reactions) functions come out more sophisticated in chordates due to the presence of more well-developed neural networks. These features have been preserved by evolution as they provide adaptive advantage to their owners.

Description : The tubular and dorsal nervous system of chordates is related to the cephalization in these animals and to bilateral symmetry. The presence of neural integrating centers with concentration of ... These features have been preserved by evolution as they provide adaptive advantage to their owners.

Last Answer : How can the tubular-dorsal nervous system in chordates be compared to the nervous pattern present in invertebrates?

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

The following statements are true about imipenem except: A. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, but neither a penicillin nor a cephalosporin B. It is rapidly degraded in the kidney C. It is safe in epileptics D. It is always given in combination with cilastatin

Description : The following statements are true about imipenem except: A. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, but neither a penicillin nor a cephalosporin B. It is rapidly degraded in the kidney C. It is safe in epileptics D. It is always given in combination with cilastatin

Last Answer : C. It is safe in epileptics

Indicate the condition in which neither trimethoprim nor sulfamethoxazole alone are effective, but their combination cotrimoxazole is: A. Prostatitis B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D. Bacillary dysentery

Description : Indicate the condition in which neither trimethoprim nor sulfamethoxazole alone are effective, but their combination cotrimoxazole is: A. Prostatitis B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D. Bacillary dysentery

Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety ... the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both B' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations

The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence

Selective inhibition of conditioned avoidance response in animals by a drug indicates that the drug is likely to be effective in: A. Anxiety B. Major depression C. Schizophrenia D. Manic-depressive illness

Description : Selective inhibition of conditioned avoidance response in animals by a drug indicates that the drug is likely to be effective in: A. Anxiety B. Major depression C. Schizophrenia D. Manic-depressive illness

Last Answer : C. Schizophrenia

As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action

The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression

Description : The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression

Last Answer : B. Poor analgesia

Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo

Description : Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo

Last Answer : D. Propofol

Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of: A. Continuous use of agonists B. Continuous use of antagonists C. Chronic use of CNS depressants D. Denervation

Description : Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of: A. Continuous use of agonists B. Continuous use of antagonists C. Chronic use of CNS depressants D. Denervation

Last Answer : A. Continuous use of agonists