Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Choose the correct statement about magaldrate:
A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium
hydroxides
B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid
neutralizing action
C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g
D. It causes systemic alkalosis
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid
neutralizing action
by

Related questions

Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because: A. They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action B. They are less likely to affect gastric emptying C. They are less likely to alter bowel movement D. All of the above

Description : Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because: A. They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action B. They are less likely to affect gastric emptying C. They are less likely to alter bowel movement D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following antiulcer drug does not act by reducing the secretion of or neutralizing gastric acid: A. Magaldrate B. Sucralfate C. Misoprostol D. Omeprazol

Description : The following antiulcer drug does not act by reducing the secretion of or neutralizing gastric acid: A. Magaldrate B. Sucralfate C. Misoprostol D. Omeprazol

Last Answer : B. Sucralfate

The following is true of aluminium hydroxide gel except: A. It is a weak and slowly reacting antacid B. Its acid neutralizing capacity decreases on storage C. It interferes with absorption of phosphate in the intestine D. It causes loose motions as a side effect

Description : The following is true of aluminium hydroxide gel except: A. It is a weak and slowly reacting antacid B. Its acid neutralizing capacity decreases on storage C. It interferes with absorption of phosphate in the intestine D. It causes loose motions as a side effect

Last Answer : D. It causes loose motions as a side effec

As an antacid, sodium bicarbonate has the following disadvantages except: A. It causes acid rebound B. In ulcer patients, it increases risk of perforation C. It has low acid neutralizing capacity D. It is contraindicated in hypertensives

Description : As an antacid, sodium bicarbonate has the following disadvantages except: A. It causes acid rebound B. In ulcer patients, it increases risk of perforation C. It has low acid neutralizing capacity D. It is contraindicated in hypertensives

Last Answer : C. It has low acid neutralizing capacity

Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : D. Furosemide

The ‘acid neutralizing capacity’ of an antacid is governed by: A. The equivalent weight of the antacid B. The pH of 1N solution of the antacid C. The rate at which the antacid reacts with HCl D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : The ‘acid neutralizing capacity’ of an antacid is governed by: A. The equivalent weight of the antacid B. The pH of 1N solution of the antacid C. The rate at which the antacid reacts with HCl D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Antacid tablets consist of – (1) Hydroxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium (2) Hydroxides of magnesium and aluminium (3) Hydroxides of sodium and aluminium (4) Hydroxides of magnesium and sodium

Description : Antacid tablets consist of – (1) Hydroxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium (2) Hydroxides of magnesium and aluminium (3) Hydroxides of sodium and aluminium (4) Hydroxides of magnesium and sodium

Last Answer : (2) Hydroxides of magnesium and aluminium Explanation: An antacid is a base which neutralizes stomach acidity. The most common of these bases are hydroxides, carbonates, or bicarbonates such as Aluminum hydroxide, Calcium. carbonate, Magnesium carbonate, Magnesium hydroxide, and Sodium bicarbonate.

Antacid tablets consist of (1) Hydroxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium (2) Hydroxides of magnesium and aluminium (3) Hydroxides of sodium and aluminium (4) Hydroxides of magnesium and sodium

Description : Antacid tablets consist of (1) Hydroxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium (2) Hydroxides of magnesium and aluminium (3) Hydroxides of sodium and aluminium (4) Hydroxides of magnesium and sodium

Last Answer : Hydroxides of magnesium and aluminium

Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible for attracting and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Description : Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible ... and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Last Answer : A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction

Choose the correct statement(s) about metronidazole: A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess B. It affords the most rapid symptom relief in amoebic dysentery C. It is the most effective drug in eradicating amoebic cysts from the colon D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about metronidazole: A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess B. It affords the most rapid symptom relief in amoebic dysentery C. It is the most effective drug in eradicating amoebic cysts from the colon D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess

The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is exerted by: A. Inhibitory action of the unabsorbed drug on the abnormal colonic flora B. Breakdown of the drug in colon to release 5-aminosalicylic acid which suppresses inflammation locally C. Release of sulfapyridine having antibacterial property D. Systemic immunomodulatory action of the drug

Description : The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is exerted by: A. Inhibitory action of the unabsorbed drug on the abnormal colonic flora B. Breakdown of the drug in ... locally C. Release of sulfapyridine having antibacterial property D. Systemic immunomodulatory action of the drug

Last Answer : B. Breakdown of the drug in colon to release 5-aminosalicylic acid which suppresses inflammation locally

Choose the correct statement(s) about dofetilide: A. It is a pure class III antiarrhythmic B. It has no adrenergic/cholinergic receptor blocking property C. It selectively depresses the rapid component of delayed rectifier K+ current in myocardial fibres D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about dofetilide: A. It is a pure class III antiarrhythmic B. It has no adrenergic/cholinergic receptor blocking property C. It selectively depresses the rapid component of delayed rectifier K+ current in myocardial fibres D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Description : Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Last Answer : C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : 16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors

Choose the correct statement about colloidal bismuth subcitrate: A. It causes prolonged neutralization of gastric acid B. It has anti-H.pylori activity C. It relieves peptic ulcer pain promptly D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about colloidal bismuth subcitrate: A. It causes prolonged neutralization of gastric acid B. It has anti-H.pylori activity C. It relieves peptic ulcer pain promptly D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : B. It has anti-H.pylori activity

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

Which antifungal agent is effective in both dermatophytosis as well as systemic mycosis: A. Amphotericin B B. Griseofulvin C. Clotrimazole D. Ketoconazole

Description : Which antifungal agent is effective in both dermatophytosis as well as systemic mycosis: A. Amphotericin B B. Griseofulvin C. Clotrimazole D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : D. Ketoconazole

(3) preventing rapid setting of cement Explanation: Portland cement clinker is a hydraulic material which shall consist of at least two-thirds by mass of calcium silicates, the remainder consisting of aluminium- and ironcontaining clinker phases and other compounds. The ratio of CaO to SiO2 shall not be less than 2.0. The magnesium oxide content (MgO) shall not exceed 5.0% by mass. Cement sets when mixed with water by way of a complex series of chemical reactions still only partly understood.

Description : (3) preventing rapid setting of cement Explanation: Portland cement clinker is a hydraulic material which shall consist of at least two-thirds by mass of calcium silicates, the remainder consisting of ... mixed with water by way of a complex series of chemical reactions still only partly understood.

Last Answer : Milk is a colloidal system in which: (1) Water is dispersed in fat (2) Fat is dispersed in water (3) Fat and water are dispersed in each other (4) Fat is dissolved

Pick up the correct statement from the following: (A) The bearing capacity of a pile is defined as the load which can be sustained by the pile without producing excessive settlement (B) The safe bearing capacity of a pile is obtained by dividing the ultimate bearing capacity with a suitable factor of safety (C) The factor of safety for piles is taken as 6 (D) All the above

Description : Pick up the correct statement from the following: (A) The bearing capacity of a pile is defined as the load which can be sustained by the pile without producing excessive settlement (B) The safe bearing capacity ... of safety (C) The factor of safety for piles is taken as 6 (D) All the above

Last Answer : Answer: Option D

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the kidney C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Description : Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the ... C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Last Answer : D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene

Description : Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene

Last Answer : B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus

Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels: A. They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow B. They preferentially dilate conducting arteries without affecting resistance arterioles C. They preferentially dilate autoregulatory arterioles without affecting the larger arteries D. They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Description : Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels: A. They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow B. They preferentially dilate conducting ... the larger arteries D. They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Last Answer : B. They preferentially dilate conducting arteries without affecting resistance arterioles

Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself, but its metabolite alloxanthine is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Description : Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself ... D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Last Answer : B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

The following quinolone antimicrobial agent is not useful in systemic infections: A. Lomefloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Nalidixic acid D. Pefloxacin

Description : The following quinolone antimicrobial agent is not useful in systemic infections: A. Lomefloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Nalidixic acid D. Pefloxacin

Last Answer : C. Nalidixic acid

Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Description : Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Last Answer : C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation

Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Description : Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Last Answer : C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for both antigen and antibody detection b. Southern, northern, and western immunoblot techniques are used to detect DNA, RNA, or proteins, respectively c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a sensitive assay used to detect small amounts of microbial DNA, thus detecting infection at its early stages d. Infectious agents currently detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for ... detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Although the classic detection of infection based on clinical signs of infection and bacterial culture remain the most common clinical tools, increasing ... including CMV and HIV. Furthermore, preliminary investigations into possible detection of fungal pathogens are underway

Choose the correct statement about pentazocine: A. It causes bradycardia and fall in blood pressure B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses C. It induces vomiting frequently D. It substitutes for morphine in dependent subjects

Description : Choose the correct statement about pentazocine: A. It causes bradycardia and fall in blood pressure B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses C. It induces vomiting frequently D. It substitutes for morphine in dependent subjects

Last Answer : B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses

Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis

Description :  Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis

Last Answer : B. Hypoglycaemia

Metabolic effects that generally attend antiinflammatory doses of aspirin include the following except: A. Increased CO2 production B. Hepatic glycogen depletion C. Metabolic acidosis D. Compensated respiratory alkalosis

Description : Metabolic effects that generally attend antiinflammatory doses of aspirin include the following except: A. Increased CO2 production B. Hepatic glycogen depletion C. Metabolic acidosis D. Compensated respiratory alkalosis

Last Answer : C. Metabolic acidosis

The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule

Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Description : Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Last Answer : B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours

Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'

s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action

Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action: A. Ergometrine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Dihydroergotoxine

Description : Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action: A. Ergometrine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Dihydroergotoxine

Last Answer : A. Ergometrine

Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Description : Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct