Description : Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin that is highly resistant to gram negative β-lactamases, and cures penicillinase positive as well as negative gonococcal infection by a single intramuscular dose: A. Cephalexin B. Cefuroxime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftazidime
Last Answer : B. Cefuroxime
Description : The third generation cephalosporins differ from the first generation cephalosporins in that they are: A. More active against gram positive cocci B. More active against gram negative enterobacteriaceae C. Nonimmunogenic D. Not excreted by tubular secretion
Last Answer : B. More active against gram negative enterobacteriaceae
Description : Select the fourth generation cephalosporin among the following: A. Cefpirome B. Ceftizoxime C. Ceftazidime D. Cefuroxime
Last Answer : A. Cefpirome
Description : Nalidixic acid is primarily active against: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Gram positive bacteria D. Gram negative bacteria
Last Answer : D. Gram negative bacteria
Description : Metronidazole is used in peridontal abscess because of activity against: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Anaerobic bacilli D. Aerobic gram positive cocci
Last Answer : C. Anaerobic bacilli
Description : Select the fourth generation cephalosporin among the following (a) Cefpirome (b) Ceftizoxime (c) Ceftazidime (d) Cefuroxime
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis
Last Answer : B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris
Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor
Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis
Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex
Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion
Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis
Description : Select the 3rd generation cephalosporin that can be used only by parenteral route: A. Cefpodoxime proxetil B. Ceftizoxime C. Ceftibuten D. Cefixime
Last Answer : B. Ceftizoxime
Description : The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity
Last Answer : B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis
Description : The following fluoroquinolones have augmented activity against gram positive bacteria except: A. Lomefloxacin B. Levofloxacin C. Gatifloxacin D. Moxifloxacin
Last Answer : A. Lomefloxacin
Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin
Last Answer : C. Sparfloxacin
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound
Description : The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine
Last Answer : B. Hydrochlorothiazide
Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide
Last Answer : D. Furosemide
Description : The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone
Last Answer : A. Mexiletine
Description : Choose the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant: A. Cloxacillin B. Amoxicillin C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin D. Piperacillin
Last Answer : B. Amoxicillin
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action: A. Ergometrine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Dihydroergotoxine
Last Answer : A. Ergometrine
Description : What is Gram positive cocci in throat culture?
Last Answer : What is the answer ?
Description : Eosinophils typically increase in number in response to which of the following? C A. Gram-positive cocci B. Mycobacteria C. Parasites D. None of these
Last Answer : Parasites
Description : The majority of bacterial species that cause foodborne and waterborne illnesses in humans are _____. a. Gram-Negative Rods b. Gram-Negative Cocci c. Gram-Positive Rods d. Rods Without A Wall
Last Answer : a. Gram-Negative Rods
Description : ‘Red man syndrome’ has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of the following antibiotic: A. Vancomycin B. Clindamycin C. Cefoperazone D. Piperacillin
Last Answer : A. Vancomycin
Description : The following is true for gentamicin: A. It is more active in acidic medium B. It has a wide margin of safety C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration D. It primarily inhibits gram positive bacteria
Last Answer : C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration
Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally
Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients
Description : Features of phenoxymethyl penicillin include the following: A. It is acid stable and orally active B. Its antibacterial spectrum is similar to that of benzyl penicillin C. It is used for less serious penicillin G sensitive infections D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct
Description : The following is not true of naltrexone: A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphine B. It is active orally C. It has a long duration of action D. It can reduce craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics
Last Answer : A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphin
Description : The following is an orally active ovulation inducing agent: A. Menotropin B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Clomiphene citrate
Last Answer : D. Clomiphene citrate
Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy
Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release
Description : Indicate the attribute that is common to both polymyxin B and bacitracin: A. Both are active against gram negative bacteria B. Both are too toxic for systemic use C. Both act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis D. Both a
Last Answer : B. Both are too toxic for systemic use
Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following property common to all members: A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. They are more active in acidic medium C. They ... cells and are distributed in total body water D. They are nearly completely metabolized in liver
Last Answer : A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli
Description : Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Yersinia pestis
Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections
Last Answer : B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen
Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI
Description : Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin
Last Answer : A. Quiniodochlor
Description : Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools
Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron
Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy
Description : Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above
Description : The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis
Last Answer : B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis
Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption
Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life
Description : Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier
Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria
Description : If a necrotizing soft tissue infection is considered, therapy mandates: a. Empiric administration of antibiotics active against gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria b. Due to usually ... is mandatory d. The use of hyperbaric oxygen has been demonstrated to be clearly advantageous
Last Answer : Answer: a, c Identification of a necrotizing, soft tissue infection mandates immediate operative intervention with aggressive resection of all involved tissues and empiric ... remains without controlled trials demonstrating any additional benefits derived from hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Description : What is true of cefpirome: A. It is a fourth generation cephalosporin B. It easily penetrates porin channels of gram negative bacteria C. It inhibits type I β-lactamase producing enterobacteriaceae D. All of the above
Last Answer : . All of the above
Description : As an anthelmintic mebendazole has the following advantages except: A. It is active against most intestinal helminths B. It is very well tolerated C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestation D. It does not require predrug fasting or postdrug purging
Last Answer : C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestatio