Which of the following drugs is an antiprogestin: A. Gemeprost B. Megestrol C. Mifepristone D. Tamoxifen

Which of the following drugs is an antiprogestin:
A. Gemeprost
B. Megestrol
C. Mifepristone
D. Tamoxifen
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Mifepristone
by

Related questions

Mifepristone possesses the following activities: A. Potent antiprogestin + weak androgenic B. Potent antiprogestin + weak antiglucocorticoid C. Potent antiestrogenic + weak antiprogestin D. Potent antiestrogenic + weak glucocorticoid

Description : Mifepristone possesses the following activities: A. Potent antiprogestin + weak androgenic B. Potent antiprogestin + weak antiglucocorticoid C. Potent antiestrogenic + weak antiprogestin D. Potent antiestrogenic + weak glucocorticoid

Last Answer : Mifepristone possesses the following activities: A. Potent antiprogestin + weak androgenic B. Potent antiprogestin + weak antiglucocorticoid C. Potent antiestrogenic + weak antiprogestin D. Potent antiestrogenic + weak glucocorticoid

Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Description : Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Last Answer : . Ormeloxifen

The following effect(s) of tamoxifen citrate indicate(s) that it possesses tissue specific estrogenic action as well: A. Inhibition of breast cancer cells B. Endometrial proliferation C. Hot flushes in premenopausal women D. All of the above

Description : The following effect(s) of tamoxifen citrate indicate(s) that it possesses tissue specific estrogenic action as well: A. Inhibition of breast cancer cells B. Endometrial proliferation C. Hot flushes in premenopausal women D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Endometrial proliferation

Tamoxifen citrate is used for palliative treatment of carcinoma breast in: A. Premenopausal women B. Postmenopausal women C. Mastectomized patients D. All of the above

Description : Tamoxifen citrate is used for palliative treatment of carcinoma breast in: A. Premenopausal women B. Postmenopausal women C. Mastectomized patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Benefits of tamoxifen citrate therapy include the following except: A. Reduction in recurrence rate of breast cancer B. Improved bone mass C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes D. Improved lipid profile

Description : Benefits of tamoxifen citrate therapy include the following except: A. Reduction in recurrence rate of breast cancer B. Improved bone mass C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes D. Improved lipid profile

Last Answer : C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes

What is true of tamoxifen: A. It can induce endometrial proliferation in postmenopausal women B. It exerts antiestrogenic activity in bone C. It raises LDL-cholesterol levels D. It is ineffective in estrogen receptor-negative breast cancer

Description : What is true of tamoxifen: A. It can induce endometrial proliferation in postmenopausal women B. It exerts antiestrogenic activity in bone C. It raises LDL-cholesterol levels D. It is ineffective in estrogen receptor-negative breast cancer

Last Answer : A. It can induce endometrial proliferation in postmenopausal women

The regimen(s) used for postcoital emergency contraception is/are: A. Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinylestradiol 0.1 mg taken twice 12 hour apart B. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg taken twice 12 hour apart C. Mifepristone 600 mg single dose D. All of the abov

Description : The regimen(s) used for postcoital emergency contraception is/are: A. Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinylestradiol 0.1 mg taken twice 12 hour apart B. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg taken twice 12 hour apart C. Mifepristone 600 mg single dose D. All of the abov

Last Answer : D. All of the abov

The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Description : The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Last Answer : D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprosto

Which of the following can act as a single dose postcoital contraceptive: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate

Description : Which of the following can act as a single dose postcoital contraceptive: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate

Last Answer : B. Mifepristone

Administration of mifepristone in the late luteal phase: A. Induces menstruation B. Postpones menstruation C. Prevents luteolysis D. Causes decidualization of endometrium

Description : Administration of mifepristone in the late luteal phase: A. Induces menstruation B. Postpones menstruation C. Prevents luteolysis D. Causes decidualization of endometrium

Last Answer : A. Induces menstruation

The most important indication of mifepristone is: A. Endometriosis B. Cushing's syndrome C. First term abortion D. Second term abortion

Description : The most important indication of mifepristone is: A. Endometriosis B. Cushing's syndrome C. First term abortion D. Second term abortion

Last Answer : C. First term abortion

Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Description : Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Last Answer : A. Mifepristone

The following is an orally active ovulation inducing agent: A. Menotropin B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Clomiphene citrate

Description : The following is an orally active ovulation inducing agent: A. Menotropin B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Clomiphene citrate

Last Answer : D. Clomiphene citrate

Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of male impotence and activates prostaglandin E1 receptors? (a) Alprostadil (b) Fluoxetine (c) Mifepristone (d) Sildenafil (e) Zafirlukast

Description : Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of male impotence and activates prostaglandin E1 receptors? (a) Alprostadil (b) Fluoxetine (c) Mifepristone (d) Sildenafil (e) Zafirlukast

Last Answer : Ans: A

Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to the drug C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

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Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

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Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

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Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

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Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of cancers is higher than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

Description : The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of ... than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later

Drug/drugs effective in filariasis include: A. Ivermectin B. Albendazole C. Diethyl carbamazine citrate D. All of the above

Description : Drug/drugs effective in filariasis include: A. Ivermectin B. Albendazole C. Diethyl carbamazine citrate D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Leishmania donovani is susceptible to certain antifungal drugs because both fungi and Leishmania: A. Utilise purine salvage pathway B. Utilise similar glycolytic mechanisms C. Have similar topoisomerase II enzyme D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Description : Leishmania donovani is susceptible to certain antifungal drugs because both fungi and Leishmania: A. Utilise purine salvage pathway B. Utilise similar glycolytic mechanisms C. Have similar topoisomerase II enzyme D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Last Answer : D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate

Description : Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Description : Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3 months B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Description : The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the ... 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Last Answer : B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs

An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Description : An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Last Answer : B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following are topical antifungal drugs except: A. Ciclopirox olamine B. Tolnaftate C. Crotamiton D. Terbinafine

Description : The following are topical antifungal drugs except: A. Ciclopirox olamine B. Tolnaftate C. Crotamiton D. Terbinafine

Last Answer : C. Crotamiton

The following drugs are effective in systemic mycosis except: A. Terbinafine B. Itraconazole C. Ketoconazole D. Fluconazol

Description : The following drugs are effective in systemic mycosis except: A. Terbinafine B. Itraconazole C. Ketoconazole D. Fluconazol

Last Answer : A. Terbinafine

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Last Answer : B. They interfere with ergosterol synthesis by fungi

The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : A. Isoniazid

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Description : The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Last Answer : A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs

Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient

Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : D. Ethambutol

First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs

Description : What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs

Last Answer : B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression

Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease: A. Granuloma inguinale B. Chancroid C. Syphilis D. Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin

Description : ]Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease: A. Granuloma inguinale B. Chancroid C. Syphilis D. Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin

Last Answer : A. Granuloma inguinale

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to β-lactam antibiotics because: A. They produce a β-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs B. They elaborate an amidase which destroys methicillin and related drugs C. They have acquired penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for β-lactam antibiotics D. They are less permeable to β-lactam antibiotics

Description : Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to β-lactam antibiotics because: A. They produce a β-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs B. They elaborate an amidase which destroys ... low affinity for β-lactam antibiotics D. They are less permeable to β-lactam antibiotics

Last Answer : C. They have acquired penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for β-lactam antibioti

4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved C. They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Description : 4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should ... antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved

The opioid antidiarrhoeal drugs act by the following mechanism(s): A. They relax the intestinal smooth muscle B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis C. They promote clearance of intestinal pathogens Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above

Description : The opioid antidiarrhoeal drugs act by the following mechanism(s): A. They relax the intestinal smooth muscle B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis C. They promote clearance of intestinal pathogens Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis

Prokinetic drugs serve the following purpose(s) in gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Reduce reflux of gastric contents into esophagus B. Promote healing of esophagitis C. Reduce acidity of gastric contents D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Prokinetic drugs serve the following purpose(s) in gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Reduce reflux of gastric contents into esophagus B. Promote healing of esophagitis C. Reduce acidity of gastric contents D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : A. Reduce reflux of gastric contents into esophagus

The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Description : The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Last Answer : C. Proton pump inhibitors

Select the correct statement regarding the antiemetic efficacy of the three prokinetic drugs metoclopramide, domperidone and cisapride: A. Cisapride is the most effective B. Metoclopramide is the most effective C. Domperidone is the most effective D. All three are equally efficacious

Description : Select the correct statement regarding the antiemetic efficacy of the three prokinetic drugs metoclopramide, domperidone and cisapride: A. Cisapride is the most effective B. Metoclopramide is the most effective C. Domperidone is the most effective D. All three are equally efficacious

Last Answer : B. Metoclopramide is the most effective

In case of hill journey, antimotion sickness drugs are best administered at: A. Twelve hours before commencing journey B. One hour before commencing journey C. Immediately after commencing journey D. At the first feeling of motion sickness

Description : In case of hill journey, antimotion sickness drugs are best administered at: A. Twelve hours before commencing journey B. One hour before commencing journey C. Immediately after commencing journey D. At the first feeling of motion sickness

Last Answer : B. One hour before commencing journey