Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : D. Ethambutol
Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide
Last Answer : C. Ethambutol
Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin
Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide
Last Answer : B. Rifampin
Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin
Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine
Description : Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Last Answer : C. Sulfinpyrazone
Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months
Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid
Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc
Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months
Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months
Description : In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course
Last Answer : B. Initial two months
Description : Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs
Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs
Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'
Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance
Last Answer : B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase
Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs
Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs
Description : As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap
Last Answer : C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it
Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system
Last Answer : B. Kidney
Description : The primary reason for not using ethionamide as a first line antitubercular drug is: A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis B. It is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal C. Ethionamide resistance has become widespread D. It has to be given by injection
Last Answer : A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis
Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Indications for the use of antiplatelet drugs include the following except: A. Secondary prophylaxis of myocardial infarction B. Unstable angina pectoris C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Stroke prevention in patients with transient ischaemic attacks
Last Answer : C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Description : Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal ... . They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance
Last Answer : B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs
Description : Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the following except: A. Olanzapine B. Diazepam C. Sodium valproate D. Lamotrigine
Last Answer : B. Diazepam
Description : 16.8 Drugs that suppress growth hormone release in acromegaly include the following except: A. Bromocriptine B. Somatostatin C. Octreotide D. Nafarelin
Last Answer : D. Nafarelin
Description : The constellation of adverse effects associated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs include the following except: A. Sedation B. Gastric irritation C. Fluid retention D. Rashes
Last Answer : A. Sedation
Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients
Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis
Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli
Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response
Description : A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement
Last Answer : . Started immediately
Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month
Last Answer : C. 6 months
Description : The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above
Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is: A. Hepatitis B. Visual defects C. Vestibular disturbance D. Renal damage
Last Answer : B. Visual defects
Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible
Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children
Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier
Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria
Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : A. Tetracycline
Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance
Last Answer : B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism
Description : Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin
Last Answer : B. Ofloxacin
Description : Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin
Last Answer : D. Nitrofurantoin
Description : The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin
Last Answer : C. Clindamycin
Description : Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin
Last Answer : B. Vancomycin
Description : A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed ... most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico
Description : The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin
Last Answer : A. Doxycycline
Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above
Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above
Description : The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone
Last Answer : C. Chloramphenicol
Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin
Last Answer : C. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Ciprofloxacin is not active against: A. H.influenzae B. E.coli C. Enterobacter spp. D. Bacteroides fragilis
Last Answer : D. Bacteroides fragilis