Description : The following purgative stimulates intestinal motility independent of its action on mucosal fluid dynamics: A. Castor oil B. Senna C. Docusates D. Sod.pot. tartrate
Last Answer : B. Senna
Description : Saline osmotic purgatives are used for: A. Treatment of constipation B. Prevention of constipation in patients of piles C. Avoidance of straining at stools in patients of hernia D. Tapeworm infestation: following niclosamide administration
Last Answer : D. Tapeworm infestation: following niclosamide administration
Description : Stimulant purgatives are contraindicated in the following: A. Bed ridden patients B. Before abdominal radiography C. Spastic constipation D. Atonic constipation
Last Answer : C. Spastic constipation
Description : High molecular weight, pharmacodynamically inert, nonantigenic substances which form colloidal solution are used as: A. Osmotic purgatives B. Osmotic diuretics C. Plasma expanders D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Plasma expanders
Description : The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions
Last Answer : B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale
Description : The antibacterial action of aminoglycoside antibiotics is characterized by: A. Concentration dependent rate of bacterial cell killing B. Concentration dependent prolonged postantibiotic effect C. More pronounced bactericidal effect in anaerobic medium D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : The following can be used to antagonise the action of heparin in case of overdose: A. Heparan sulfate B. Dextran sulfate C. Protamine sulfate D. Ancrod
Last Answer : C. Protamine sulfate
Description : All the following statements about obstructive jaundice are true except (A) Prothrombin time may be prolonged due to impaired absorption of vitamin K (B) Serum alkaline phosphatase may be raised ... systemic circulation due to biliary obstruction (D) There is no defect in conjugation of bilirubin
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : The effects of diethyl carbamazine citrate in filariasis include the following except: A. Rapid symptomatic relief in acute filarial attack B. Renders filarial patients noninfective to mosquitoes ... Prolonged treatment may achieve radical cure by killing adult filarial worms lodged in lymphatics
Last Answer : C. Prolonged treatment induces regression of filarial elephantiasis
Description : Prolonged use of the following drug has been implicated in the causation of subacute myelo-optic neuropathy (SMON): A. Diloxanide furoate B. Iodochlorhydroxyquin C. Emetine D. Furazolidone
Last Answer : B. Iodochlorhydroxyquin
Description : Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in steatorrhoea and loose motions: A. Ampicillin B. Tetracycline C. Neomycin D. Nystatin
Last Answer : C. Neomycin
Description : What is true of drug therapy of typhoid fever: A. Combination of chloramphenicol with ciprofloxacin is superior to either drug alone B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting ... C. Prolonged treatment with chloramphenicol eradicates typhoid carrier state D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting and most dependable treatment
Description : The following strategy will promote rather than curb emergence of antibiotic resistant micro-organisms: A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics B. Prefer a narrow spectrum ... Prefer short and intensive courses of antibiotics D. Use antibiotic combinations for prolonged therapy
Last Answer : A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics
Description : Widespread and prolonged use of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics: A. Induce mutation in the bacteria B. Promote conjugation among bacteria C. Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially
Description : Prolonged treatment with the following drug can promote dissolution of gallstones if the gall bladder is functional: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Sodium taurocholate C. Sodium glycocholate D. Cholecystokinin
Last Answer : A. Ursodeoxycholic acid
Description : Choose the correct statement about colloidal bismuth subcitrate: A. It causes prolonged neutralization of gastric acid B. It has anti-H.pylori activity C. It relieves peptic ulcer pain promptly D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : B. It has anti-H.pylori activity
Description : The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit
Last Answer : B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa
Description : What is true of nicotinic acid as well as nicotinamide: A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity B. Both cause cutaneous vasodilatation C. Both lower plasma triglyceride and VLDL levels D. Both cause hyperglycaemia after prolonged medication
Last Answer : A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity
Description : Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with: A. Amiodarone B. Mexiletine C. Sotalol D. Procainamide
Last Answer : A. Amiodarone
Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C
Description : Prolonged lithium therapy can cause: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Goiter C. Parkinsonism D. Gout
Last Answer : B. Goiter
Description : Prolonged painful erection of penis has been noted particularly as a side effect of: A. Doxepin B. Citalopram C. Bupropion D. Trazodone
Last Answer : D. Trazodone
Description : The following drug is routinely used in preanaesthetic medication for prolonged operations: A. Atropine B. Morphine C. Promethazine D. Ranitidine
Last Answer : D. Ranitidine
Description : The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane
Last Answer : C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment
Description : Prolonged testosterone therapy can cause: A. Hypertrophy of seminiferous tubules of testes B. Hypertrophy of interstitial cells of testes C. Atrophy of interstitial cells of testes D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : C. Atrophy of interstitial cells of testes
Description : The most likely complication of prolonged use of nasal decongestant drops is: A. Atrophic rhinitis B. Hypertrophy of nasal mucosa C. Naso-pharyngeal moniliasis D. Blockage of eustachian tubes
Last Answer : A. Atrophic rhinitis
Description : Drug cumulation is the basis of organ toxicity of the following drug when used for prolonged periods: A. Prednisolone B. Chloroquine C. Aspirin D. Hydralazine
Last Answer : B. Chloroquine
Description : The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP
Last Answer : D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP
Description : Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is: A. Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values D. Insoluble in water
Last Answer : C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values
Description : Select the purgative that should not be taken at bed time: A. Magnesium sulfate B. Bisacodyl C. Senna D. Ispaghula
Last Answer : A. Magnesium sulfate
Description : The following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy: A. Bisacodyl B. Liquid paraffin C. Lactulose D. Magnesium sulfate
Last Answer : C. Lactulose
Description : 2 In a conscious patient of poisoning, use of an emetic is permissible in case the ingested poison is: A. Ferrous sulfate B. Sodium hydroxide C. Kerosine D. Morphine
Last Answer : A. Ferrous sulfate
Description : he percentage of elemental iron in hydrated ferrous sulfate is: A. 5% B. 10% C. 20% D. 33%
Last Answer : C. 20%
Description : Which of the following tocolytics used for suppressing labour is most likely to compromise placental perfusion: A. Salbutamol B. Ethyl alcohol C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nifedipine
Last Answer : D. Nifedipine
Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine
Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate
Description : A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine
Last Answer : C. Magnesium sulfate
Description : The most suitable mydriatic for a patient of corneal ulcer is: A. Atropine sulfate B. Homatropine C. Cyclopentolate D. Tropicamide
Last Answer : A. Atropine sulfate
Description : Which of the following statements regarding neutrophils are true? a. The neutrophil undergoes final maturation after release into the circulation b. Patients with chronic granulomatous disease have a defective ... proteins d. The normal human neutrophil circulates in the blood for 7-10 days
Last Answer : Answer: b, c The neutrophil is a migratory phagocytic cell that defends the host against bacteria and eliminates necrotic tissue. The neutrophil matures in the bone marrow and is ... phagocytose bacteria, they are unable to kill the intracellular microbes and chronic, unresolved infections result
Description : Select the organic nitrate which undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Isosorbide dinitrate C. Isosorbide mononitrate D. Erythrityl tetranitrate
Last Answer : C. Isosorbide mononitrate
Description : The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling
Last Answer : B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine
Description : Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release
Last Answer : B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker
Description : Which of the following drugs undergoes ‘Hofmann’ elimination: A. Succinylcholine B. Pancuronium C. Vecuronium
Last Answer : D. Atracurium
Description : If a drug undergoes net tubular secretion, its renal clearance will be: A. More than the glomerular filtration rate B. Equal to the glomerular filtration rate C. Less than the glomerular filtration rate D. Equal to the rate of urine formation
Last Answer : A. More than the glomerular filtration rate
Description : The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation ... in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections
Last Answer : A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble
Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect
Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation
Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil
Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect
Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action
Last Answer : C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension
Description : Pentazocine differs from morphine in that: A. It is inactive by the oral route B. It does not produce physical dependence C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect D. Its action is not blocked by naloxone
Last Answer : C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effec
Description : The following statement about lithium is not correct: A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals B. It controls mania, but takes 1-2 weeks to produce the effect C. ... recurrent unipolar depression D. It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression
Last Answer : A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals