Description : The most suitable laxative for a patient of irritable bowel disease with spastic constipation is: A. Dietary fibre B. Liquid paraffin C. Bisacodyl D. Senna
Last Answer : A. Dietary fibre
Description : A 70-year-old patient presented with weakness, tiredness and muscle cramps. The ECG showed Q-T prolongation, flattening of T wave and occasional A-V block. His serum K+ was low (2.8 mEq ... could be responsible for the above condition: A. Bisacodyl B. Liquid paraffin C. Methylcellulose D. Bran
Last Answer : A. Bisacodyl
Description : Select the purgative that should not be taken at bed time: A. Magnesium sulfate B. Bisacodyl C. Senna D. Ispaghula
Last Answer : A. Magnesium sulfate
Description : A patient presented with abdominal pain and frequent unsatisfactory bowel movement. For the last one year he has been using a purgative twice weekly to open his bowel. On colonoscopy the colon was found to ... that the patient has been using: A. Liquid paraffin B. Ispaghula C. Senna D. Lactulose
Last Answer : C. Senna
Description : Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools
Description : Used as a laxative, liquid paraffin has the following drawbacks except: A. It interferes with absorption of fat soluble vitamins B. It is unpleasant to swallow C. It causes griping D. It can produce foreign body granulomas
Last Answer : C. It causes griping
Description : Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ... gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver
Last Answer : B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria
Description : Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex linked, recessive absence of HGPRTase, may lead to (A) Compulsive self destructive behaviour with elevated levels of urate in serum (B) Hypouricemia due to liver damage (C) Failure to thrive and megaloblastic anemia (D) Protein intolerance and hepatic encephalopathy
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : A modified amino acid solution with increased equimolar branched-chain amino acids and decreased aromatic amino acids has been proposed for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Which of the following ... D. In some studies of surgical patients, improvements in mortality have been reported.
Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: The use of modified amino acid solutions is based on the false neurotransmitter hypothesis of the cause of hepatic coma. According to this hypothesis, the imbalance ... in a group of patients with cirrhosis, decreasing morbidity and showing a trend toward decreased mortality
Description : Which of the following tocolytics used for suppressing labour is most likely to compromise placental perfusion: A. Salbutamol B. Ethyl alcohol C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nifedipine
Last Answer : D. Nifedipine
Description : A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine
Last Answer : C. Magnesium sulfate
Description : Regular low-to-moderate alcohol consumption is associated with: A. Lower incidence of coronary artery disease B. Myocardial depression C. Physical dependence D. Wernicke's encephalopathy
Last Answer : A. Lower incidence of coronary artery disease
Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization
Last Answer : D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization
Description : Which of the following hypolipidemic drugs is most effective in raising HDL-cholesterol level and lowers serum triglycerides: A. Nicotinic acid B. Fenofibrate C. Cholestyramine D. Pravastatin
Last Answer : A. Nicotinic acid
Description : Choose the correct statement about lovastatin: A. It markedly lowers plasma triglyceride with little effect on cholesterol level B. It is used as an adjuvant to gemfibrozil for type III ... hypercholesterolemia D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis
Last Answer : D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis
Description : The following is true of bezafibrate except: A. It activates lipoprotein lipase B. It mainly lowers serum triglyceride level with smaller effect on LDL cholesterol level C. It increases the incidence of myopathy due to statins D. It tends to lower plasma fibrinogen level
Last Answer : C. It increases the incidence of myopathy due to statins
Description : Gemfibrozil has the following features except: A. It lowers plasma LDL cholesterol to a greater extent than triglycerides B. It tends to raise plasma HDL-cholesterol level C. It is a first ... type III, type IV and type V hyperlipoproteinemia D. It reduces the incidence of myocardial infarctio
Last Answer : A. It lowers plasma LDL cholesterol to a greater extent than triglycerides
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes
Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus
Description : Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in ... a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal
Last Answer : C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect
Description : Methyldopa lowers BP by: A. Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone C. Generating α-methyl ... as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic nerve endings D. Activating vascular dopamine receptors
Last Answer : B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone
Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects
Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect
Description : The following is true about actions of ethylalcohol: A. It exerts anticonvulsant action followed by lowering of seizure threshold B. It lowers pain threshold C. It increases confidence and reduces number of errors D. It increases heat production and helps to keep warm in cold weather
Last Answer : A. It exerts anticonvulsant action followed by lowering of seizure threshold
Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic
Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia
Description : Allopurinol lowers the plasma concentration of: A. Hypoxanthine B. Xanthine C. Uric acid D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Uric acid
Description : After treating intestinal amoebiasis with metronidazole, a course of diloxanide furoate is often advised to: A. Cure any subclinical hepatic involvement B. Suppress the symbiotic intestinal flora C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc
Last Answer : C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites
Description : The following drug is effective in hepatic amoebiasis but not in intestinal amoebiasis: A. Chloroquine B. Emetine C. Tetracycline D. Diloxanide furoate
Last Answer : A. Chloroquine
Description : The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis
Last Answer : B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis
Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema
Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension
Description : The most important channel of elimination of digoxin is: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Excretion in bile
Last Answer : A. Glomerular filtration
Description : Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution
Last Answer : B. Renal excretion
Description : Transdermal estradiol differs from oral estrogen therapy in that it: A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors B. Does not inhibit FSH secretion C. Does not affect vaginal cytology D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors
Description : N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because: A. It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex B. It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of ... scavenger D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol
Last Answer : D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol
Description : Metabolic effects that generally attend antiinflammatory doses of aspirin include the following except: A. Increased CO2 production B. Hepatic glycogen depletion C. Metabolic acidosis D. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
Last Answer : C. Metabolic acidosis
Description : Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is: A. Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values D. Insoluble in water
Last Answer : C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values
Description : Which of the following purgatives undergoes enterohepatic circulation to produce prolonged action: A. Docusates B. Phenolphthalein C. Castor oil D. Mag. sulfate
Last Answer : B. Phenolphthalein
Description : 2 In a conscious patient of poisoning, use of an emetic is permissible in case the ingested poison is: A. Ferrous sulfate B. Sodium hydroxide C. Kerosine D. Morphine
Last Answer : A. Ferrous sulfate
Description : The following can be used to antagonise the action of heparin in case of overdose: A. Heparan sulfate B. Dextran sulfate C. Protamine sulfate D. Ancrod
Last Answer : C. Protamine sulfate
Description : he percentage of elemental iron in hydrated ferrous sulfate is: A. 5% B. 10% C. 20% D. 33%
Last Answer : C. 20%
Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine
Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate
Description : The most suitable mydriatic for a patient of corneal ulcer is: A. Atropine sulfate B. Homatropine C. Cyclopentolate D. Tropicamide
Last Answer : A. Atropine sulfate
Description : Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which (a) elevates calcium level in blood (b) has no effect on calcium (c) elevates potassium level in blood (d) lowers calcium level in blood.
Last Answer : (d) lowers calcium level in blood.
Description : Which of the following hormones is NOT correctly matched with its description? A) thymosin--aids in production of T cells B) thyroxin--needed for growth and development in vertebrates ... by removing glucose into tissues E) epinephrine--released by the adrenal medulla under stressful conditions
Last Answer : D) cortisol--lowers blood glucose level by removing glucose into tissues E) epinephrine--released by the adrenal medulla under stressful conditions
Description : What's the deal with salts and minerals, such as magnesium sulfate, in bottled drinking water?
Last Answer : It's called mineral water for a reason. Natural mineral water comes from under ground springs where the water absorbs minerals and gases as it makes its way to the surface. The different composition of ... added by them. (It also didn't help that the adverts stated that dasani added spunk).
Description : Is magnesium sulfate a gas or solid?
Last Answer : Feel Free to Answer
Description : What is wrong with this word equation calcium chloride plus magnesium sulfate barium chloride plus magnesium sulfate?
Last Answer : There is no equation in the question, only two pair of tworeactants.
Description : Epsom salt is chemically known as-----? A. Copper Sulfate B. Magnesium Sulfate (Answer) C. Ferrous Sulfate D. None of these
Last Answer : B. Magnesium Sulfate (Answer)