High molecular weight, pharmacodynamically inert, nonantigenic substances which form colloidal solution are used as: A. Osmotic purgatives B. Osmotic diuretics C. Plasma expanders D. All of the above

High molecular weight, pharmacodynamically inert,
nonantigenic substances which form colloidal solution
are used as:
A. Osmotic purgatives
B. Osmotic diuretics
C. Plasma expanders
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Plasma expanders
by

Related questions

Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the kidney C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Description : Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the ... C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Last Answer : D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Saline osmotic purgatives are used for: A. Treatment of constipation B. Prevention of constipation in patients of piles C. Avoidance of straining at stools in patients of hernia D. Tapeworm infestation: following niclosamide administration

Description : Saline osmotic purgatives are used for: A. Treatment of constipation B. Prevention of constipation in patients of piles C. Avoidance of straining at stools in patients of hernia D. Tapeworm infestation: following niclosamide administration

Last Answer : D. Tapeworm infestation: following niclosamide administration

Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions except: A. Congestive heart failure B. Extensive burns C. Mutilating injuries D. Endotoxin shock

Description : Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions except: A. Congestive heart failure B. Extensive burns C. Mutilating injuries D. Endotoxin shock

Last Answer : A. Congestive heart failure

Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Blood colloidal osmotic pressure mainly maintained by which plasma protein `:-`

Description : Blood colloidal osmotic pressure mainly maintained by which plasma protein `:-`

Last Answer : Blood colloidal osmotic pressure mainly maintained by which plasma protein `:-` A. Globulin B. Albumin C. Fibrinogen D. Prothombin

Stimulant purgatives are contraindicated in the following: A. Bed ridden patients B. Before abdominal radiography C. Spastic constipation D. Atonic constipation

Description : Stimulant purgatives are contraindicated in the following: A. Bed ridden patients B. Before abdominal radiography C. Spastic constipation D. Atonic constipation

Last Answer : C. Spastic constipation

Which of the following purgatives undergoes enterohepatic circulation to produce prolonged action: A. Docusates B. Phenolphthalein C. Castor oil D. Mag. sulfate

Description : Which of the following purgatives undergoes enterohepatic circulation to produce prolonged action: A. Docusates B. Phenolphthalein C. Castor oil D. Mag. sulfate

Last Answer : B. Phenolphthalein

One property a colloidal dispersion has that a solution does not is: w) homogeneity x) filterability y) the Tyndall effect z) osmotic pressure

Description : One property a colloidal dispersion has that a solution does not is: w) homogeneity x) filterability y) the Tyndall effect z) osmotic pressure

Last Answer : ANSWER: Y -- THE TYNDALL EFFECT 

An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

Description : An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics ... Medications such as barbiturates are given to the patient with IICP to reduce cellular metabolic demands.

Last Answer : a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Low dose therapy with the following category of antihypertensive drugs has been found to be more advantageous in the long-term than high dose therapy with the same drugs: A. β adrenergic blockers B. α1 adrenergic blockers C. Central sympatholytics D. Diuretics

Description : Low dose therapy with the following category of antihypertensive drugs has been found to be more advantageous in the long-term than high dose therapy with the same drugs: A. β adrenergic blockers B. α1 adrenergic blockers C. Central sympatholytics D. Diuretics

Last Answer : D. Diuretics

As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action

Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami

Description : Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami

Last Answer : C. Captopril

Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Description : Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Last Answer : B. Amiloride

The following is not itself an efficacious diuretic, and is used only as an adjuvant/corrective to other diuretics: A. Acetazolamide B. Metolazone C. Spironolactone D. Indapamide

Description : The following is not itself an efficacious diuretic, and is used only as an adjuvant/corrective to other diuretics: A. Acetazolamide B. Metolazone C. Spironolactone D. Indapamide

Last Answer : C. Spironolactone

Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency

The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Description : The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory ... these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Last Answer : A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action

The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Description : The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Last Answer : C. Cortical diluting segment

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Description : Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C ... in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K

Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Last Answer : B. Calcium

ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Description : ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis

Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Description : Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Last Answer : C. Elderly obese hypertensives

Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Description : Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Nifedipine

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Description : The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in severe heart failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Description : The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in ... by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : A. Symptomatic relief

Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. They are used when diuretics alone fail C. They are a substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Description : Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. ... substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Last Answer : D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till haemodynamic compensation is restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till ... restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Last Answer : A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term

Amphetamine potentiates the following class of drugs: A. Diuretics B. Analgesics C. Neuroleptics D. Antihypertensives

Description : Amphetamine potentiates the following class of drugs: A. Diuretics B. Analgesics C. Neuroleptics D. Antihypertensives

Last Answer : B. Analgesics

Amphetamine potentiates the following class of drugs: A. Diuretics B. Analgesics C. Neuroleptics D. Antihypertensives

Description : Amphetamine potentiates the following class of drugs: A. Diuretics B. Analgesics C. Neuroleptics D. Antihypertensives

Last Answer : B. Analgesics

Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools

The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

Description : The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

Last Answer : B. Furosemide

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

Choose the correct statement about colloidal bismuth subcitrate: A. It causes prolonged neutralization of gastric acid B. It has anti-H.pylori activity C. It relieves peptic ulcer pain promptly D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about colloidal bismuth subcitrate: A. It causes prolonged neutralization of gastric acid B. It has anti-H.pylori activity C. It relieves peptic ulcer pain promptly D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : B. It has anti-H.pylori activity

ntacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antipeptic ulcer drug: A. Cimetidine B. Colloidal bismuth C. Sucralfate D. Pirenzepine

Description : ntacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antipeptic ulcer drug: A. Cimetidine B. Colloidal bismuth C. Sucralfate D. Pirenzepine

Last Answer : C. Sucralfate

Choose the antiulcer drug that inhibits gastric acid secretion, stimulates gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion and has cytoprotective action on gastric mucosa: A. Misoprostol B. Sucralfate C. Carbenoxolone sodium D. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate

Description : Choose the antiulcer drug that inhibits gastric acid secretion, stimulates gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion and has cytoprotective action on gastric mucosa: A. Misoprostol B. Sucralfate C. Carbenoxolone sodium D. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate

Last Answer : A. Misoprostol

Oncotic pressure refers to a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin. b) the number of dissolved particles contained in a unit of fluid. Osmolality refers to the number of dissolved particles contained in a unit of fluid. c) the excretion of substances such as glucose through increased urine output. Osmotic diuresis occurs when the urine output increases due to excretion of substances such as glucose. d) the amount of pressure needed to stop flow of water by osmosis. Osmotic pressure is the amount of pressure needed to stop the flow of water by osmosis.

Description : Oncotic pressure refers to a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin. b) the number of dissolved particles contained in a ... . Osmotic pressure is the amount of pressure needed to stop the flow of water by osmosis.

Last Answer : a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin.

Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos

Description : Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos

Last Answer : A. Placebo is a dummy medication

Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required

Description : Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required

Last Answer : A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Colloid osmotic pressure of intracellular fluid is (A) Equal to that of plasma (B) More than that of plasma (C) More than that of plasma (D) Nearly zero WATER AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE 285

Description : Colloid osmotic pressure of intracellular fluid is (A) Equal to that of plasma (B) More than that of plasma (C) More than that of plasma (D) Nearly zero WATER AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE 285

Last Answer : Answer : B

Contribution of albumin to colloid osmotic pressure of plasma is about (A) 10% (B) 50% (C) 80% (D) 90%

Description : Contribution of albumin to colloid osmotic pressure of plasma is about (A) 10% (B) 50% (C) 80% (D) 90%

Last Answer : Answer : C

Osmotic pressure of plasma is (A) 80–100 milliosmole/litre (B) 180–200 milliosmole/litre (C) 280–300 milliosmole/litre (D) 380–400 milliosmole/litre

Description : Osmotic pressure of plasma is (A) 80–100 milliosmole/litre (B) 180–200 milliosmole/litre (C) 280–300 milliosmole/litre (D) 380–400 milliosmole/litre

Last Answer : Answer : C

The Tm for PAH i.e the maximal secretory capacity of the tubule for PAH can be used to gavge the (A) Extent of tubular damage FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 81 (B) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work (C) Impairment of renal plasma flow (D) Glomerular filtration rate

Description : The Tm for PAH i.e the maximal secretory capacity of the tubule for PAH can be used to gavge the (A) Extent of tubular damage FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 81 (B) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work (C) Impairment of renal plasma flow (D) Glomerular filtration rate

Last Answer : Answer : A

An early feature of renal disease is (A) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work (B) Decrease in maximal tubular excretory capacity (C) Decrease in filtration factor (D) Decrease in renal plasma flow

Description : An early feature of renal disease is (A) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work (B) Decrease in maximal tubular excretory capacity (C) Decrease in filtration factor (D) Decrease in renal plasma flow

Last Answer : A

Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in (a) osmotic balance of body fluids (b) oxygen transport in the blood (c) clotting of blood (d) defence mechanisms of body.

Description : Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in (a) osmotic balance of body fluids (b) oxygen transport in the blood (c) clotting of blood (d) defence mechanisms of body.

Last Answer : (d) defence mechanisms of body.

What is the separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimensions called?

Description : What is the separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimensions called?

Last Answer : Dialysis

Honey that has high concentration of sugar does not decay because (1) Bacteria cannot survive in an active state as it is totally deprived of oxygen (2) It contains natural antioxidant that prevents bacterial attack (3) Bacteria cannot survive in an active state in a solution of high osmotic strength as water is drawn out (4) None of these

Description : Honey that has high concentration of sugar does not decay because (1) Bacteria cannot survive in an active state as it is totally deprived of oxygen (2) It contains natural antioxidant that prevents bacterial ... state in a solution of high osmotic strength as water is drawn out (4) None of these

Last Answer : (3) Bacteria cannot survive in an active state in a solution of high osmotic strength as water is drawn out Explanation: The reason why bacteria does not grow in high concentration of sugar ... measure of unbound, free water molecules in the food that is necessary for microbial survival and growth.