Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Choose the correct statement about lactulose:
A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to
enhance gut peristalsis
B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative
within 2-4 hours
C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft
but formed stools
D. All of the above are correct
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft
but formed stools
by

Related questions

Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide

Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Description : Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Last Answer : C. Serotonergic 5-HT4

A patient presented with abdominal pain and frequent unsatisfactory bowel movement. For the last one year he has been using a purgative twice weekly to open his bowel. On colonoscopy the colon was found to be atonic with bluish pigmentation of the mucosa. Which is the most likely purgative that the patient has been using: A. Liquid paraffin B. Ispaghula C. Senna D. Lactulose

Description : A patient presented with abdominal pain and frequent unsatisfactory bowel movement. For the last one year he has been using a purgative twice weekly to open his bowel. On colonoscopy the colon was found to ... that the patient has been using: A. Liquid paraffin B. Ispaghula C. Senna D. Lactulose

Last Answer : C. Senna

The following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy: A. Bisacodyl B. Liquid paraffin C. Lactulose D. Magnesium sulfate

Description : The following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy: A. Bisacodyl B. Liquid paraffin C. Lactulose D. Magnesium sulfate

Last Answer : C. Lactulose

The following purgative stimulates intestinal motility independent of its action on mucosal fluid dynamics: A. Castor oil B. Senna C. Docusates D. Sod.pot. tartrate

Description : The following purgative stimulates intestinal motility independent of its action on mucosal fluid dynamics: A. Castor oil B. Senna C. Docusates D. Sod.pot. tartrate

Last Answer : B. Senna

Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts

Description : Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts

Last Answer : B. Increased peristalsis of gut

The first line of host defense is the barrier presented to the external environment. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning host barriers? a. Sebaceous glands secrete chemical compounds that maintain a relatively high pH, providing effective bacterial stasis b. Within the respiratory tract, ciliary function serves to extrude microorganisms trapped within the mucus secretion layer c. The low pH within the stomach markedly decreases bacterial content of the upper gastrointestinal tract d. Gut peristalsis serves to prevent microbial adherence and invasion

Description : The first line of host defense is the barrier presented to the external environment. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning host barriers? a. Sebaceous glands secrete ... of the upper gastrointestinal tract d. Gut peristalsis serves to prevent microbial adherence and invasion

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d The skin, mucus membranes, and epithelial layers of various organs of the body constitute effective physical barriers against microbial invasion. In certain portions of the ... very low pH within the stomach and gut peristalsis both serve to prevent microbial adherence and invasion

Earthworms have no skeleton but during burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to (a) gut peristalsis (b) setae (c) coelomic fluid (d) blood.

Description : Earthworms have no skeleton but during burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to (a) gut peristalsis (b) setae (c) coelomic fluid (d) blood.

Last Answer : (c) coelomic fluid

Saline osmotic purgatives are used for: A. Treatment of constipation B. Prevention of constipation in patients of piles C. Avoidance of straining at stools in patients of hernia D. Tapeworm infestation: following niclosamide administration

Description : Saline osmotic purgatives are used for: A. Treatment of constipation B. Prevention of constipation in patients of piles C. Avoidance of straining at stools in patients of hernia D. Tapeworm infestation: following niclosamide administration

Last Answer : D. Tapeworm infestation: following niclosamide administration

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis

he following is true of desmopressin except: A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist B. It is more potent and longer acting than arginine vasopressin (AVP) C. It is preferred over AVP for treatment of diabetes insipidus D. It can be administered orally

Description : Che following is true of desmopressin except: A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist B. It is more potent and longer acting than arginine vasopressin (AVP) C. It is preferred over AVP for treatment of diabetes insipidus D. It can be administered orally

Last Answer : A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist

Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Description : Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Last Answer : A. Mifepristone

Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It needs pretreatment fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Description : Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It ... fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Last Answer : A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound

The following is/are true of mesalazine: A. It exerts mainly local antiinflammatory action in the lower gut B. It is a broad spectrum antidiarrhoeal drug C. It can be administered as a retention enema D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : The following is/are true of mesalazine: A. It exerts mainly local antiinflammatory action in the lower gut B. It is a broad spectrum antidiarrhoeal drug C. It can be administered as a retention enema D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C

Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex

Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy

Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the kidney C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Description : Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the ... C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Last Answer : D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Description : Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Last Answer : C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin

Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Last Answer : C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation

Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant actions C. The BZD receptor is homogeneous at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones

Assertion: In acute constipation, purgative containing magnesium salts are generally used. Reason: The osmotic effect of `Mg^(2+)` in the intestinal l

Description : Assertion: In acute constipation, purgative containing magnesium salts are generally used. Reason: The osmotic effect of `Mg^(2+)` in the intestinal l

Last Answer : Assertion: In acute constipation, purgative containing magnesium salts are generally used. Reason: The osmotic ... `Mg^(2+)` is absorbed very slowly

Which statement is NOT correct about PTH? A) When calcium level rises, PTH secretion is inhibited. B) When calcium level lowers, PTH secretion is stimulated. C) PTH has the opposite effect of calcitonin. D) PTH stimulates calcium absorption from the gut. E) PTH decreases the activity of osteoclasts.

Description : Which statement is NOT correct about PTH? A) When calcium level rises, PTH secretion is inhibited. B) When calcium level lowers, PTH secretion is stimulated. C) PTH has the opposite effect of ... . D) PTH stimulates calcium absorption from the gut. E) PTH decreases the activity of osteoclasts.

Last Answer : E) PTH decreases the activity of osteoclasts.

The following is not true of naltrexone: A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphine B. It is active orally C. It has a long duration of action D. It can reduce craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics

Description : The following is not true of naltrexone: A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphine B. It is active orally C. It has a long duration of action D. It can reduce craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics

Last Answer : A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphin

The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases tone and segmenting activity of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action

The gut controls the entry of ingested iron in the body by: A. Regulating the availability of apoferritin which acts as the carrier of iron across the mucosal cell B. Regulating the turnover of apoferritin-ferritin interconversion in the mucosal cell C. Complexing excess iron to form ferritin which remains stored in the mucosal cell and is shed off D. Regulating the number of transferrin receptors on the mucosal cell

Description : The gut controls the entry of ingested iron in the body by: A. Regulating the availability of apoferritin which acts as the carrier of iron across the mucosal cell B. Regulating the turnover of ... mucosal cell and is shed off D. Regulating the number of transferrin receptors on the mucosal cell

Last Answer : C. Complexing excess iron to form ferritin which remains stored in the mucosal cell and is shed off

For the treatment of Hymenolepis nana infestation, praziquantel has the following advantage(s) over niclosamide: A. It is better tolerated B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with niclosamide C. A purgative is required after niclosamide but not after praziquantel D. All of the abov

Description : For the treatment of Hymenolepis nana infestation, praziquantel has the following advantage(s) over niclosamide: A. It is better tolerated B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with ... C. A purgative is required after niclosamide but not after praziquantel D. All of the abov

Last Answer : B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with niclosamide

Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action: A. Ergometrine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Dihydroergotoxine

Description : Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action: A. Ergometrine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Dihydroergotoxine

Last Answer : A. Ergometrine

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora C. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low

A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine

Description : A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine

Last Answer : C. Magnesium sulfate

Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Description : Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Last Answer : C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug

A saline purgative is recommended following: A. Niclosamide for tapeworm infestation B. Mebendazole for roundworm infestation C. Pyrantel pamoate for hookworm infestation D. Albendazole for whipworm infestation (Trichuriasis

Description : A saline purgative is recommended following: A. Niclosamide for tapeworm infestation B. Mebendazole for roundworm infestation C. Pyrantel pamoate for hookworm infestation D. Albendazole for whipworm infestation (Trichuriasis

Last Answer : A. Niclosamide for tapeworm infestation

Select the purgative that should not be taken at bed time: A. Magnesium sulfate B. Bisacodyl C. Senna D. Ispaghula

Description : Select the purgative that should not be taken at bed time: A. Magnesium sulfate B. Bisacodyl C. Senna D. Ispaghula

Last Answer : A. Magnesium sulfate

Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in the subjacent muscle and joint tissues upto a depth/distance of 10 cm from the site of application C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Description : Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in ... a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Last Answer : C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect

Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

Description : Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

Last Answer : A. Quiniodochlor

Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Description : Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Last Answer : A. Cefdinir

Which of the following categories of laxatives draw water into the intestines by osmosis? a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 hours of consumption.

Description : Which of the following categories of laxatives draw water into the intestines by osmosis? a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 ... by surfactant action on the colonic epithelium, resulting in mixing of aqueous and fatty substances.

Last Answer : a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 hours of consumption.

In case of hill journey, antimotion sickness drugs are best administered at: A. Twelve hours before commencing journey B. One hour before commencing journey C. Immediately after commencing journey D. At the first feeling of motion sickness

Description : In case of hill journey, antimotion sickness drugs are best administered at: A. Twelve hours before commencing journey B. One hour before commencing journey C. Immediately after commencing journey D. At the first feeling of motion sickness

Last Answer : B. One hour before commencing journey

Choose the correct statement about sumatriptan: A. It activates serotonergic neurones in raphe nuclei B. It tends to suppress both pain and vomiting in migraine C. It does not carry risk of precipitating coronary vasospasm D. It is combined with ergotamine for treatment of severe migraine

Description : Choose the correct statement about sumatriptan: A. It activates serotonergic neurones in raphe nuclei B. It tends to suppress both pain and vomiting in migraine C. It does not carry risk of precipitating coronary vasospasm D. It is combined with ergotamine for treatment of severe migraine

Last Answer : B. It tends to suppress both pain and vomiting in migraine

Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria C. It is highly effective in acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills ... acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Last Answer : B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria

Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms

Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers blood glucose in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus