Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin
Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin
Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : D. Ethambutol
Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc
Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months
Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months
Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin
Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine
Description : As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap
Last Answer : C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it
Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs
Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs
Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier
Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria
Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months
Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid
Description : The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide
Last Answer : B. Rifampin
Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients
Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis
Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month
Last Answer : C. 6 months
Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course
Last Answer : B. Initial two months
Description : Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Last Answer : C. Sulfinpyrazone
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if ... (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : The primary reason for not using ethionamide as a first line antitubercular drug is: A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis B. It is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal C. Ethionamide resistance has become widespread D. It has to be given by injection
Last Answer : A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis
Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Isoniazid and ethambutol are used to treat a. Cholera. b. Influenza. c. MRSA. d. Tuberculosis.
Last Answer : d. Tuberculosis.
Description : The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above
Description : Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline
Last Answer : C. Clofazimine
Description : The drug which abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa in parkinsonism, but not that of levodopacarbidopa combination is: A. Metoclopramide B. Pyridoxine C. Chlorpromazine D. Isoniazid
Last Answer : B. Pyridoxine
Description : Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol
Last Answer : C. Cimetidin
Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'
Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli
Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response
Description : A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement
Last Answer : . Started immediately
Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase
Description : The characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is: A. Hepatitis B. Visual defects C. Vestibular disturbance D. Renal damage
Last Answer : B. Visual defects
Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible
Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children
Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : A. Tetracycline
Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs
Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs
Description : A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above
Last Answer : C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy
Description : The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary ... use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy
Last Answer : A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases
Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin
Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen
Description : Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for: A. Multibacillary leprosy B. Paucibacillary leprosy C. Dapsone resistant leprosy D. All forms of leprosy
Last Answer : D. All forms of leprosy
Description : Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the treatment of tuberculosis: A. Respiratory syndrome B. Cutaneous syndrome C. Flu syndrome D. Abdominal syndrome
Last Answer : A. Respiratory syndrome
Description : Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria
Last Answer : A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Description : Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin
Last Answer : B. Vancomycin
Description : An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The drug isoniazid is used widely in contemporary medicine to a. Treat tuberculosis. b. Prevent fungal overgrowth in the intestine. c. Clear away wound infections. d. Eliminate infections due to gram-negative bacteria.
Last Answer : a. Treat tuberculosis.
Description : Isoniazid has a very narrow drug spectrum as the active form of the drug specifically interferes with cell wall synthesis in _____ by inhibiting the production of mycolic acid in the cell wall. a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Enterococcus d. Mycobacterium
Last Answer : d. Mycobacterium
Description : Select the drug which has been found to be a strong human teratogen: A. Isoniazid B. Isotretinoin C. Hydralazine D. Propylthiouracil
Last Answer : B. Isotretinoin
Description : Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity
Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia
Description : Pentamidine is a first line drug for the following disease: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia C. Actinomycosis D. Leishmaniasis
Last Answer : B. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Description : Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone
Last Answer : D. Furazolidone