The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide

The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli
present within caseous material having low oxygen
tension are most susceptible to:
A. Ethambutol
B. Rifampin
C. Streptomycin
D. Pyrazinamide
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Rifampin
by

Related questions

In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response

A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following measures would you recommend: A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine B. Substitute isoniazid with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine

Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria

Description : Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria

Last Answer : A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6 months B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2 months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone for 6 months C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months

Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. Produces more rapid sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin

Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Last Answer : C. Ethambutol

First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap

Description : As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap

Last Answer : C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it

In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course

Description : In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course

Last Answer : B. Initial two months

Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : D. Ethambutol

Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Description : Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Last Answer : C. Sulfinpyrazone

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Last Answer : C. 6 months

The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary and multibacillary cases C. No resistance to rifampin develops despite its use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Description : The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary ... use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Last Answer : A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases

The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularly C. All hypnotics aggravate sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Description : The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B ... sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Last Answer : B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularl

The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : A. Isoniazid

The characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is: A. Hepatitis B. Visual defects C. Vestibular disturbance D. Renal damage

Description : The characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is: A. Hepatitis B. Visual defects C. Vestibular disturbance D. Renal damage

Last Answer : B. Visual defects

Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children

Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol

Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Tetracycline

Metronidazole is used in peridontal abscess because of activity against: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Anaerobic bacilli D. Aerobic gram positive cocci

Description : Metronidazole is used in peridontal abscess because of activity against: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Anaerobic bacilli D. Aerobic gram positive cocci

Last Answer : C. Anaerobic bacilli

A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

Description : A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

Last Answer : C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy

Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Description : Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Last Answer : C. Clofazimine

If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen

Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for: A. Multibacillary leprosy B. Paucibacillary leprosy C. Dapsone resistant leprosy D. All forms of leprosy

Description : Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for: A. Multibacillary leprosy B. Paucibacillary leprosy C. Dapsone resistant leprosy D. All forms of leprosy

Last Answer : D. All forms of leprosy

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the treatment of tuberculosis: A. Respiratory syndrome B. Cutaneous syndrome C. Flu syndrome D. Abdominal syndrome

Description : Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the treatment of tuberculosis: A. Respiratory syndrome B. Cutaneous syndrome C. Flu syndrome D. Abdominal syndrome

Last Answer : A. Respiratory syndrome

Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Description : Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Last Answer : B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris

Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Description : Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Last Answer : B. Vancomycin

Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following property common to all members: A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. They are more active in acidic medium C. They readily enter cells and are distributed in total body water D. They are nearly completely metabolized in liver

Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following property common to all members: A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. They are more active in acidic medium C. They ... cells and are distributed in total body water D. They are nearly completely metabolized in liver

Last Answer : A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli

The most important mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is: A. Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell B. Acquisition of a plasmid encoded for chloramphenicol acetyl transferase C. Lowered affinity of the bacterial ribosome for chloramphenicol D. Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial protein synthesi

Description : The most important mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is: A. Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell B. Acquisition of a plasmid encoded ... the bacterial ribosome for chloramphenicol D. Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial protein synthesi

Last Answer : B. Acquisition of a plasmid encoded for chloramphenicol acetyl transferas

Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Description : Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Choose the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant: A. Cloxacillin B. Amoxicillin C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin D. Piperacillin

Description : Choose the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant: A. Cloxacillin B. Amoxicillin C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin D. Piperacillin

Last Answer : B. Amoxicillin

Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Description : Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Last Answer : D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Nalidixic acid is primarily active against: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Gram positive bacteria D. Gram negative bacteria

Description : Nalidixic acid is primarily active against: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Gram positive bacteria D. Gram negative bacteria

Last Answer : D. Gram negative bacteria

Bacterial cells susceptible to penicillium can be protected from destruction if the medium in which they are exposed is of A- high osmotic pressure B- low osmotic pressure C- moderate osmotic pressure D- high surface tension

Description : Bacterial cells susceptible to penicillium can be protected from destruction if the medium in which they are exposed is of A- high osmotic pressure B- low osmotic pressure C- moderate osmotic pressure D- high surface tension

Last Answer : high osmotic pressure

Select the antibiotic which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by interfering with translocation of elongating peptide chain from acceptor site back to the peptidyl site of the ribosome so that ribosome does not move along the mRNA and the peptide chain is prematurely terminated: A. Chloramphenicol B. Erythromycin C. Tetracycline D. Streptomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by interfering with translocation of elongating peptide chain from acceptor site back to the peptidyl site of the ribosome so that ... chain is prematurely terminated: A. Chloramphenicol B. Erythromycin C. Tetracycline D. Streptomycin

Last Answer : B. Erythromycin

Gentamicin differs from streptomycin in that: A. It is less nephrotoxic B. It is used for pseudomonas infections C. It is not effective in tuberculosis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Gentamicin differs from streptomycin in that: A. It is less nephrotoxic B. It is used for pseudomonas infections C. It is not effective in tuberculosis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is: A. Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values D. Insoluble in water

Description : Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is: A. Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values D. Insoluble in water

Last Answer : C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values

Which aminoglycoside antibiotic causes more hearing loss than vestibular disturbance as toxic effect: A. Streptomycin B. Gentamicin C. Kanamycin D. Sisomicin

Description : Which aminoglycoside antibiotic causes more hearing loss than vestibular disturbance as toxic effect: A. Streptomycin B. Gentamicin C. Kanamycin D. Sisomicin

Last Answer : C. Kanamycin

Select the antibiotic that has a high therapeutic index: A. Streptomycin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic that has a high therapeutic index: A. Streptomycin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : C. Cephalexin

Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin

Description : Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin

The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol

Description : The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : A. Streptomycin

Leishmania donovani is susceptible to certain antifungal drugs because both fungi and Leishmania: A. Utilise purine salvage pathway B. Utilise similar glycolytic mechanisms C. Have similar topoisomerase II enzyme D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Description : Leishmania donovani is susceptible to certain antifungal drugs because both fungi and Leishmania: A. Utilise purine salvage pathway B. Utilise similar glycolytic mechanisms C. Have similar topoisomerase II enzyme D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Last Answer : D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir: A. Herpes simplex type I virus B. Herpes simplex type II virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D. Epstein-Barr virus

Description : Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir: A. Herpes simplex type I virus B. Herpes simplex type II virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D. Epstein-Barr virus

Last Answer : A. Herpes simplex type I virus

Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy C. Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Description : Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy ... of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals

Description : Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : B. Fall in BP in the long term

Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Description : Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Last Answer : D. Central excitant and hyperthermic