Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance

Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin
include the following except:
A. Long postantibiotic effect
B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
C. MBC values close to MIC values
D. Slow development of resistance
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
by

Related questions

Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance

Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance

Last Answer : Ans: B

A bactericidal antibiotic has the following characteristic(s): A. Pronounced postantibiotic effect B. Large difference between MBC and MIC values C. Efficacy in the absence of host defence D. All of the above

Description : A bactericidal antibiotic has the following characteristic(s): A. Pronounced postantibiotic effect B. Large difference between MBC and MIC values C. Efficacy in the absence of host defence D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Efficacy in the absence of host defence

The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration C. Long terminal elimination half-life D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin

Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin

Last Answer : C. Sparfloxacin

The following antibiotic(s) exert(s) a long postantibiotic effect: A. Fluoroquinolones B. β-lactams C. Aminoglycosides D. All of the above

Description : The following antibiotic(s) exert(s) a long postantibiotic effect: A. Fluoroquinolones B. β-lactams C. Aminoglycosides D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : A. Isoniazid

First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

Actions of progesterone include the following except: A. Rise in body temperature B. Endometrial proliferation C. Proliferation of acini in mammary gland D. Suppression of cell mediated immunity

Description : Actions of progesterone include the following except: A. Rise in body temperature B. Endometrial proliferation C. Proliferation of acini in mammary gland D. Suppression of cell mediated immunity

Last Answer : B. Endometrial proliferatio

Benefits of tamoxifen citrate therapy include the following except: A. Reduction in recurrence rate of breast cancer B. Improved bone mass C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes D. Improved lipid profile

Description : Benefits of tamoxifen citrate therapy include the following except: A. Reduction in recurrence rate of breast cancer B. Improved bone mass C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes D. Improved lipid profile

Last Answer : C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use

The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity

The distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Description : The distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

he distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Description : he distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system

Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system

Last Answer : B. Kidney

The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularly C. All hypnotics aggravate sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Description : The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B ... sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Last Answer : B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularl

The following action of digoxin is responsible for beneficial effect in auricular fibrillation: A. Increased myocardial contractility B. Suppression of SA node C. Depression of A-V conduction D. Enhanced Purkinje fibre automaticity

Description : The following action of digoxin is responsible for beneficial effect in auricular fibrillation: A. Increased myocardial contractility B. Suppression of SA node C. Depression of A-V conduction D. Enhanced Purkinje fibre automaticity

Last Answer : C. Depression of A-V conduction

One of the most common side effect of inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate is: A. Pneumonia B. Oropharyngeal candidiasis C. Atrophic rhinitis D. Pituitary-adrenal suppression

Description : One of the most common side effect of inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate is: A. Pneumonia B. Oropharyngeal candidiasis C. Atrophic rhinitis D. Pituitary-adrenal suppression

Last Answer : B. Oropharyngeal candidiasis

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone

Description : The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone

Last Answer : C. Chloramphenicol

Distinctive features of gatifloxacin include the following except: A. Higher affinity for the enzyme topoisomerase IV B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria C. Potential to prolong QTc interval D. Employed to treat community acquired pneumonia

Description : Distinctive features of gatifloxacin include the following except: A. Higher affinity for the enzyme topoisomerase IV B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria C. Potential to prolong QTc interval D. Employed to treat community acquired pneumonia

Last Answer : B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria

Features of µ (Mu) opioid receptor include the following except: A. Acts by inhibiting cAMP formation B. Mediates miotic action C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression D. Mediates high ceiling supraspinal analgesia

Description : Features of µ (Mu) opioid receptor include the following except: A. Acts by inhibiting cAMP formation B. Mediates miotic action C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression D. Mediates high ceiling supraspinal analgesia

Last Answer : C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination

Description : At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination

Last Answer : B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution

TThe most important mechanism of antiinflammatory action of glucocorticoids is: A. Inhibition of lysosomal enzymes B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation C. Antagonism of action of interleukins D. Suppression of complement function

Description : The most important mechanism of antiinflammatory action of glucocorticoids is: A. Inhibition of lysosomal enzymes B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation C. Antagonism of action of interleukins D. Suppression of complement function

Last Answer : B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation

The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Description : The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Last Answer : A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients

Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical C. It is rapidly inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical

As an anthelmintic mebendazole has the following advantages except: A. It is active against most intestinal helminths B. It is very well tolerated C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestation D. It does not require predrug fasting or postdrug purging

Description : As an anthelmintic mebendazole has the following advantages except: A. It is active against most intestinal helminths B. It is very well tolerated C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestation D. It does not require predrug fasting or postdrug purging

Last Answer : C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestatio

The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases tone and segmenting activity of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action

Metoclopramide has the following actions except: A. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter C. Increases gastric peristalsis D. Increases intestinal peristalsis

Description : Metoclopramide has the following actions except: A. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter C. Increases gastric peristalsis D. Increases intestinal peristalsis

Last Answer : B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter

Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions

Description : Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions

Last Answer : B. Antivagal action

5-HT appears to play a role in the following except: A. Regulation of normal BP B. Regulation of intestinal peristalsis C. Haemostasis D. Causation of migraine

Description : 5-HT appears to play a role in the following except: A. Regulation of normal BP B. Regulation of intestinal peristalsis C. Haemostasis D. Causation of migraine

Last Answer : A. Regulation of normal BP

The fluoroquinolones have improved over nalidixic acid in the following respect(s): A. They have higher antimicrobial potency B. They have extended antimicrobial spectrum C. Development of bacterial resistance against them is slow and infrequent D. All of the above

Description : The fluoroquinolones have improved over nalidixic acid in the following respect(s): A. They have higher antimicrobial potency B. They have extended antimicrobial spectrum C. Development of bacterial resistance against them is slow and infrequent D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following measure can minimise pituitary-adrenal suppression during long-term corticosteroid therapy: A. Use of betamethasone in place of prednisolone B. Use of prednisolone on alternate days C. Division of the daily dose in three equal 8 hourly doses D. Administration of the total daily dose at bed time

Description : The following measure can minimise pituitary-adrenal suppression during long-term corticosteroid therapy: A. Use of betamethasone in place of prednisolone B. Use of prednisolone on alternate days C. Division of ... in three equal 8 hourly doses D. Administration of the total daily dose at bed time

Last Answer : B. Use of prednisolone on alternate days

Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect

The following is true of cyclophosphamide except: A. It is highly reactive and a vesicant on contact B. It is a prodrug C. It has marked immunosuppressant property D. It frequently causes alopecia and cystitis

Description : The following is true of cyclophosphamide except: A. It is highly reactive and a vesicant on contact B. It is a prodrug C. It has marked immunosuppressant property D. It frequently causes alopecia and cystitis

Last Answer : A. It is highly reactive and a vesicant on contac

Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy C. Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Description : Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy ... of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Description : The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Last Answer : D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced cases

Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid excretion C. It causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Description : Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid ... causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Description : The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Last Answer : A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs

Atropine does not exert relaxant/antispasmodic effect on the following muscle: A. Intestinal B. Ureteric C. Bronchial D. Laryngeal

Description : Atropine does not exert relaxant/antispasmodic effect on the following muscle: A. Intestinal B. Ureteric C. Bronchial D. Laryngeal

Last Answer : D. Laryngeal

Atropine does not exert relaxant/antispasmodic effect on the following muscle: A. Intestinal B. Ureteric C. Bronchial D. Laryngeal

Description : Atropine does not exert relaxant/antispasmodic effect on the following muscle: A. Intestinal B. Ureteric C. Bronchial D. Laryngeal

Last Answer : D. Laryngeal

Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

Last Answer : B. Ofloxacin

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin

Description : Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin

Last Answer : D. Nitrofurantoin

The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

Description : The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

Last Answer : C. Clindamycin

Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Description : Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Last Answer : B. Vancomycin

A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed abdominal distention and an ashen gray appearance. Which is the most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed ... most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico

The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin

Description : The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin

Last Answer : A. Doxycycline