Description : Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals
Last Answer : B. Fall in BP in the long term
Description : Metoclopramide has the following actions except: A. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter C. Increases gastric peristalsis D. Increases intestinal peristalsis
Last Answer : B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter
Description : The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP
Last Answer : D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP
Description : The opioid antidiarrhoeal drugs act by the following mechanism(s): A. They relax the intestinal smooth muscle B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis C. They promote clearance of intestinal pathogens Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis
Description : Platelets play an important role in haemostasis; which of the following describes this role? A. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured ... thrombosis D. They supply fibrin stabilizing factors E. They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin activation
Last Answer : B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels
Description : The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone
Last Answer : D. Increased vagal tone
Description : Sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics act by: A. Reducing intestinal absorption of glucose B. Increasing insulin secretion from pancreas C. Reversing down-regulation of insulin receptors D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class
Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately
Description : Indications of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Attention deficit-hyperactive disorder in children B. Mania C. Prophylaxis of migraine D. Panic disorder
Last Answer : B. Mania
Description : Estrogen therapy can worsen the following associated conditions except: A. Migraine B. Cholelithiasis C. Acne vulgaris D. Endometriosis
Last Answer : C. Acne vulgaris
Description : Actions of adenosine include the following except: A. Depression of A-V node B. Coronary vasodilatation C. Bronchodilatation D. Fall in BP
Last Answer : C. Bronchodilatation
Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential
Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm
Description : Prolonged use of the following drug has been implicated in the causation of subacute myelo-optic neuropathy (SMON): A. Diloxanide furoate B. Iodochlorhydroxyquin C. Emetine D. Furazolidone
Last Answer : B. Iodochlorhydroxyquin
Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia
Last Answer : A. Histamine release
Description : As an anthelmintic mebendazole has the following advantages except: A. It is active against most intestinal helminths B. It is very well tolerated C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestation D. It does not require predrug fasting or postdrug purging
Last Answer : C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestatio
Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance
Last Answer : B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells
Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action
Description : Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions
Last Answer : B. Antivagal action
Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of glutamine in total parenteral nutrition? a. Glutamine is an essential amino acid b. Glutamine appears to be of primary ... . Glutamine is the primary energy source for intestinal mucosal cells of the small bowel and colon
Last Answer : Answer: b Glutamine is the most studied gut-specific nutrient. Glutamine has been classified as a nonessential or nutritionally dispensable amino acid since glutamine can be synthesized in adequate ... . In contrast to glutamine, short chain fatty acids are primary energy source for colonocytes
Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy
Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property
Description : The following antidepressant increases rather than inhibits 5-HT uptake into neurones: A. Clomipramine B. Fluoxetine C. Tianeptine D. Trazodone
Last Answer : C. Tianeptine
Description : Adaptive changes in brain monoamine turnover due to blockade of noradrenaline/5-HT reuptake is credited with the following effect: A. Antipsychotic B. Antianxiety C. Antiparkinsonian D. Antidepressant
Last Answer : D. Antidepressant
Description : The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor: A. 5-HT1 B. 5-HT2 C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4
Last Answer : C. 5-HT3
Description : Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools
Description : Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts
Last Answer : B. Increased peristalsis of gut
Description : Prostaglandins play pathophysiological role in the following except: A. Patency of ductus arteriosus B. Regulation of renal tubular salt absorption C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction D. Initiation of labour
Last Answer : C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction
Description : Ergotamine relieves migraine by: A. Blocking vascular α adrenergic receptors B. Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors C. Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation
Last Answer : D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation
Description : Estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal women is contraindicated in subjects with: A. Leg vein thrombosis B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding C. Migraine D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine
Last Answer : C. Flunarizine
Description : The most important risk in the use of sumatriptan for treatment of migraine is: A. Precipitation of seizures B. Precipitation of psychosis C. Development of hypertension D. Coronary vasospasm
Last Answer : D. Coronary vasospasm
Description : The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are more effective in migraine: A. Without aura B. With aura C. Than ergotamine D. When combined with propranolol
Last Answer : A. Without aura
Description : Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment ... resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided
Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases
Description : Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease
Last Answer : B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis
Description : initial regulation of BP in vascular system occur at : a- Arterioles b-Aorta and its branches c-Heart d-Capillaries e-Vein and venules
Last Answer : a- Arterioles
Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Description : The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection
Last Answer : A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine
Description : Methyldopa lowers BP by: A. Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone C. Generating α-methyl ... as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic nerve endings D. Activating vascular dopamine receptors
Last Answer : B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone
Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation
Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors
Description : Select the nonapeptide which can be generated from plasma globulin by snake venom enzymes, causes fall in BP and intense pain when applied to blister base: A. Kallidin B. Bradykinin C. Angiotensin II D. Angiotensin III
Last Answer : B. Bradykinin
Description : Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex
Last Answer : C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins
Description : An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the ... likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine
Last Answer : B. Captopril
Description : The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall: A. Cocaine B. Dibucaine C. Lignocaine D. Procaine
Last Answer : A. Cocaine
Description : Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release
Last Answer : C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection
Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine
Last Answer : C. Mephentermine
Description : Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both ... 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic
Last Answer : D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic
Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine
Description : Sodium cromoglycate has a role in the treatment of the following conditions except: A. Chronic bronchial asthma B. Chronic urticaria C. Chronic allergic rhinitis D. Chronic allergic conjunctivitis
Last Answer : B. Chronic urticaria
Description : Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It ... fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm
Last Answer : A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects