In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has
the following advantage(s):
A. It is effective in nearly all cases
B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms
C. Development of carrier state is unlikely
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above

Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone

Description : The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone

Last Answer : C. Chloramphenicol

Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin

Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin

Last Answer : C. Ciprofloxacin

What is true of drug therapy of typhoid fever: A. Combination of chloramphenicol with ciprofloxacin is superior to either drug alone B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting and most dependable treatment C. Prolonged treatment with chloramphenicol eradicates typhoid carrier state D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of drug therapy of typhoid fever: A. Combination of chloramphenicol with ciprofloxacin is superior to either drug alone B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting ... C. Prolonged treatment with chloramphenicol eradicates typhoid carrier state D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting and most dependable treatment

Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin

Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any single effective drug in case of the following diseases except: A. Typhoid fever B. Leprosy C. AIDS D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Description : Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any single effective drug in case of the following diseases except: A. Typhoid fever B. Leprosy C. AIDS D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Last Answer : A. Typhoid fever

The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with chloramphenicol C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Description : The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with ... C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Last Answer : D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Description : A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients

Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance

Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance

Last Answer : B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes

Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Description : Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Last Answer : D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection: A. Typhoid B. Shigella enteritis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Gonorrhoea

Description : Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection: A. Typhoid B. Shigella enteritis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Gonorrhoea

Last Answer : B. Shigella enteritis

Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not active against P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain

ystemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of: A. Exfoliative dermatitis B. Posterior uveitis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Hodgkin’s disease

Description : ystemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of: A. Exfoliative dermatitis B. Posterior uveitis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Hodgkin’s disease

Last Answer : C. Acute rheumatic feve

What are the causes and symptoms of typhoid fever ? How to cure typhoid fever ?

Description : What are the causes and symptoms of typhoid fever ? How to cure typhoid fever ?

Last Answer : The causes , symptoms , treatment and remedies of typhoid fever are given below: - Typhoid fever is caused by a bacterium called Salmonella typhi. The virus is spread mainly through contaminated food and water. ... If you want to know more, please comment. Source : Dear Teacher, Prof. Dr. SK Mitra

After drinking contaminated water you would be most apt to develop symptoms of A. Malaria B. Yellow Fever C. Typhoid fever D. Dengue fever

Description : After drinking contaminated water you would be most apt to develop symptoms of A. Malaria B. Yellow Fever C. Typhoid fever D. Dengue fever

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

After drinking contaminated water you would be most apt to develop symptoms of A. Malaria B. Yellow Fever C. Typhoid fever D. Dengue fever

Description : After drinking contaminated water you would be most apt to develop symptoms of A. Malaria B. Yellow Fever C. Typhoid fever D. Dengue fever

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

After drinking contaminated water you would be most apt to develop symptoms of A. Malaria B. Yellow Fever C. Typhoid fever D. Dengue fever

Description : After drinking contaminated water you would be most apt to develop symptoms of A. Malaria B. Yellow Fever C. Typhoid fever D. Dengue fever

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases

Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose. B. With normal renal function, this patient is likely to be volume overloaded. C. Proper fluid therapy would be unlikely to include potassium administration. D. Insulin administration will increase the potassium content of cells. E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood ... . E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: Each 100-mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose causes a fall in serum sodium concentration of approximately 2 mEq. per liter. Excess serum glucose ... correction of the patient's associated acidosis produce movement of potassium ions into the intracellular compartment

he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above

Description : he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

The following statement is not true of carbamazepine: A. It generates an active metabolite B. Its plasma half life decreases to nearly half of the original value after chronic use C. It is being used in mania D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures

Description : The following statement is not true of carbamazepine: A. It generates an active metabolite B. Its plasma half life decreases to nearly half of the original value after chronic use C. It is being used in mania D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures

Last Answer : D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures

Roxithromycin has the following advantage(s) over erythromycin: A. It is more effective in whooping cough B. It causes less gastric irritation C. It has longer plasma half-life D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantage(s) over erythromycin: A. It is more effective in whooping cough B. It causes less gastric irritation C. It has longer plasma half-life D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

An intradermal penicillin sensitivity test has been performed on a patient and found to be negative. This indicates that: A. Penicillin antibodies are not present in his body B. He will not develop any reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected C. He will not develop anaphylactic reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected D. He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Description : An intradermal penicillin sensitivity test has been performed on a patient and found to be negative. This indicates that: A. Penicillin antibodies are not present in his body B. He will ... He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Last Answer : D. He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm

For the treatment of Hymenolepis nana infestation, praziquantel has the following advantage(s) over niclosamide: A. It is better tolerated B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with niclosamide C. A purgative is required after niclosamide but not after praziquantel D. All of the abov

Description : For the treatment of Hymenolepis nana infestation, praziquantel has the following advantage(s) over niclosamide: A. It is better tolerated B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with ... C. A purgative is required after niclosamide but not after praziquantel D. All of the abov

Last Answer : B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with niclosamide

Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

Last Answer : B. Ofloxacin

The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : A. Isoniazid

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin

Description : Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin

Last Answer : D. Nitrofurantoin

The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

Description : The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

Last Answer : C. Clindamycin

Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Description : Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Last Answer : B. Vancomycin

A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed abdominal distention and an ashen gray appearance. Which is the most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed ... most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico

The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin

Description : The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin

Last Answer : A. Doxycycline

Ciprofloxacin is not active against: A. H.influenzae B. E.coli C. Enterobacter spp. D. Bacteroides fragilis

Description : Ciprofloxacin is not active against: A. H.influenzae B. E.coli C. Enterobacter spp. D. Bacteroides fragilis

Last Answer : D. Bacteroides fragilis

Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin

Last Answer : C. Sparfloxacin

Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin

Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system

Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system

Last Answer : B. Kidney

Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin

Description : Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin

The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : C. Phenytoin

Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid excretion C. It causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Description : Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid ... causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Description : The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Last Answer : C. COMT inhibitor

Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Choose the antimalarial drug effective against multidrug resistant P. falciparum, which rapidly terminates an attack of malarial fever, but has a short duration of action, so that recrudescence is common: A. Proguanil B. Mefloquine C. Amodiaquine D. Artemisinin

Description : Choose the antimalarial drug effective against multidrug resistant P. falciparum, which rapidly terminates an attack of malarial fever, but has a short duration of action, so that recrudescence is common: A. Proguanil B. Mefloquine C. Amodiaquine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : D. Artemisinin