Description : The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Demeclocycline (c) oxytetracycine (d) Doxycycline
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The tetracycline with highest antileprotic activity is: A. Minocycline B. Doxycycline C. Demeclocycline D. Oxytetracycline
Last Answer : A. Minocycline
Description : Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic: A. Demeclocycline B. Oxytetracycline C. Minocycline D. Doxycycline
Last Answer : C. Minocycline
Description : The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity: A. Minocycline B. Demeclocycline C. Doxycycline D. Tetracycline
Last Answer : D. Tetracycline
Description : Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic (a) Demeclocycline (b) Methacycline (c) Minocycline (d) Doxycycline
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : A patient treated with capsule oxytetracycline 500 mg 6 hourly complained of epigastric pain. Which of the following measures will you recommend to counteract the side effect: A. Take the capsules ... capsules D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing
Last Answer : D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing
Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits
Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low
Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin
Description : Choose the most suitable antihypertensive drug for a 45-year-old male company executive who has a travelling job. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, and he is a diabetic ... → rebound hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide: May worsen diabetes; more likely to produce weakness, fatigue and impotenc
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the ... you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine
Last Answer : B. Doxycycline
Description : A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine
Last Answer : A. Epoetin
Description : Increased serum alanine during fasting is due to (A) Breakdown of muscle proteins (B) Decreased utilization of non essential amino acids (C) Leakage of aminoacids to plasma (D) Impaired renal function
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Impaired renal function is indicated when the amount of PSP excreted in the first 15 minutes is (A) 20% (B) 35% (C) 40% (D) 45%
Last Answer : A
Description : A child presented with polyuria, weakness and fever. On the basis of investigations he was labelled to be suffering from Fancony syndrome. A history of taking some old left over antibiotic ... What could have been the antibiotic: A. Tetracycline B. Chloramphenicol C. Ampicillin D. Cephalexi
Last Answer : A. Tetracycline
Description : The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg ... 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days
Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days
Description : The drug of choice for penicillinase producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae urethritis is: A. Amoxicillin B. Erythromycin C. Ceftriaxone D. Doxycycline
Last Answer : C. Ceftriaxone
Description : A single oral dose of the following antibiotic is curative in most patients of nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Doxycycline B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Cotrimoxazole
Last Answer : B. Azithromycin
Description : Select the antibiotic(s) that can be used to treat nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Azithromycin B. Doxycycline C. Clindamycin D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin
Last Answer : A. Doxycycline
Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline
Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Select the antibiotic that has a high therapeutic index: A. Streptomycin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : C. Cephalexin
Description : Tetracycline is indicated in the following form(s) of amoebic infection: A. Acute amoebic dysentery B. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis
Description : The following drug is effective in hepatic amoebiasis but not in intestinal amoebiasis: A. Chloroquine B. Emetine C. Tetracycline D. Diloxanide furoate
Last Answer : A. Chloroquine
Description : Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine
Last Answer : D. Mefloquine
Description : Indicate the drug that can be used as an alternative to primaquine for radical cure of vivax malaria: A. Atovaquone B. Bulaquine C. Tetracycline D. Proguanil
Last Answer : B. Bulaquine
Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by interfering with translocation of elongating peptide chain from acceptor site back to the peptidyl site of the ribosome so that ... chain is prematurely terminated: A. Chloramphenicol B. Erythromycin C. Tetracycline D. Streptomycin
Last Answer : B. Erythromycin
Description : Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in steatorrhoea and loose motions: A. Ampicillin B. Tetracycline C. Neomycin D. Nystatin
Last Answer : C. Neomycin
Description : The following antibiotic penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best: A. Erythromycin B. Gentamicin C. Tetracycline D. Chloramphenicol
Last Answer : D. Chloramphenicol
Description : An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition: A. Chloramphenicol B. Tetracycline C. Erythromycin D. Gentamicin
Last Answer : Tetracycline
Description : Bacteria develop tetracycline resistance by the following mechanisms except: A. Losing tetracycline concentrating mechanisms B. Elaborating tetracycline inactivating enzyme C. Synthesizing a protection protein' ... the target site D. Actively pumping out tetracycline that has entered the cell
Last Answer : B. Elaborating tetracycline inactivating enzym
Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol
Description : 2 Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations: A. Erythromycin B. Tetracycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Ampicillin
Last Answer : A. Erythromycin Although erythromycin is primarily bacteriostatic, it is bactericidal at high concentrations for some Gram-positive species, such as group A streptococci and pneumococci
Description : The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : C. Phenytoin
Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
Last Answer : D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
Description : Impaired galactose tolerance test suggests (A) Defect in glucose utilisation (B) Liver cell injury (C) Renal defect (D) Muscle injury
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : A 65-year old patient has colon carcinoma metastatic to the liver and lungs. He has had a weight loss of 10 kg. Cytokine-dependent tumor cachexia is attributable to which of the ... is impaired e. Partial reversal of differentiated adipocytes to pre-adipocyte morphology and gene expression occurs
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Tumor cachexia appears to be mediated by TNFa. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS), as well as other cytokines, activate a variety of inflammatory cells, most ... chronic syndromes of anorexia, weight loss, and cachexia that are associated with both chronic infection and malignancy
Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion
Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion
Description : The most suitable laxative for a patient of irritable bowel disease with spastic constipation is: A. Dietary fibre B. Liquid paraffin C. Bisacodyl D. Senna
Last Answer : A. Dietary fibre
Description : Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine
Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol
Last Answer : A. Pindolol
Description : The most suitable mydriatic for a patient of corneal ulcer is: A. Atropine sulfate B. Homatropine C. Cyclopentolate D. Tropicamide
Last Answer : A. Atropine sulfate
Description : Metabolic actions of estrogens tend to cause the following except: A. Anabolism B. Impaired glucose tolerance C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol D. Salt and water retention
Last Answer : C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol
Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed
Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules
Description : he current therapeutic indication of acetazolamide is: A. Congestive heart failure B. Renal insufficiency C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Glaucoma
Last Answer : D. Glaucoma
Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori
Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect
Description : Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient ... chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline
Description : An old male presents complaining of having numerous white lesions in the oral cavity within past few days. Prior to this the family physician prescribed chlorite tetracycline for an upper respiratory infection, ... plaques on the lip mucosa, buccal mucosa and the tongue. MOST LIKELY to be:
Last Answer : Moniliasis (Which is candidiasis)
Description : An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram ... orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment
Last Answer : A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally