Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the treatment of tuberculosis: A. Respiratory syndrome B. Cutaneous syndrome C. Flu syndrome D. Abdominal syndrome

Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the
treatment of tuberculosis:
A. Respiratory syndrome
B. Cutaneous syndrome
C. Flu syndrome
D. Abdominal syndrome
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Respiratory syndrome
by

Related questions

Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Last Answer : C. 6 months

The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Description : The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Last Answer : A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. Produces more rapid sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following measures would you recommend: A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine B. Substitute isoniazid with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

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Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine

Fentanyl transdermal patches have been used postoperatively to provide transdermal analgesia. The most dangerous adverse effect of this mode of administration is (a) Cutaneous reactions (b) Diarrhea (c) Hypertension (d) Relaxation of skeletal muscle (e) Respiratory depression

Description : Fentanyl transdermal patches have been used postoperatively to provide transdermal analgesia. The most dangerous adverse effect of this mode of administration is (a) Cutaneous reactions (b) Diarrhea (c) Hypertension (d) Relaxation of skeletal muscle (e) Respiratory depression

Last Answer : Ans: E

A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

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Last Answer : C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy

Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for: A. Multibacillary leprosy B. Paucibacillary leprosy C. Dapsone resistant leprosy D. All forms of leprosy

Description : Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for: A. Multibacillary leprosy B. Paucibacillary leprosy C. Dapsone resistant leprosy D. All forms of leprosy

Last Answer : D. All forms of leprosy

Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during surgery C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

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Last Answer : C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events

A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed abdominal distention and an ashen gray appearance. Which is the most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

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Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico

The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary and multibacillary cases C. No resistance to rifampin develops despite its use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Description : The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary ... use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Last Answer : A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases

The rare but characteristic adverse effect of HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is: A. Onycolysis B. Myopathy C. Alopecia D. Oculomucocutaneous syndrome

Description : The rare but characteristic adverse effect of HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is: A. Onycolysis B. Myopathy C. Alopecia D. Oculomucocutaneous syndrome

Last Answer : B. Myopathy

The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic drug therapy which does not respond to central anticholinergics is: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Rabbit syndrome D. Tardive dyskinesia

Description : The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic drug therapy which does not respond to central anticholinergics is: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Rabbit syndrome D. Tardive dyskinesia

Last Answer : D. Tardive dyskinesia

Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Description : Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Last Answer : C. Clofazimine

Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Description : Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Last Answer : B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome

Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism: A. Inhibits development of involuntary movements B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect’ C. Inhibits occurrence of behavioral abnormalities D. Accentuates nausea and vomiting

Description : Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism: A. Inhibits development of involuntary movements B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect’ C. Inhibits occurrence of behavioral abnormalities D. Accentuates nausea and vomiting

Last Answer : B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect

An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol

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Last Answer : C. Norfloxacin

The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Description : The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

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Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Description : Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Last Answer : B. Vancomycin

If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

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Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen

According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6 months B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2 months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone for 6 months C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months

Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin

Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Last Answer : C. Ethambutol

Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria

Description : Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria

Last Answer : A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide

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Last Answer : B. Rifampin

The most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of the following reaction in certain recipients: A. Ventricular arrhythmia B. Agranulocytosis C. Haemolysis D. Anaphylaxis

Description : The most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of the following reaction in certain recipients: A. Ventricular arrhythmia B. Agranulocytosis C. Haemolysis D. Anaphylaxis

Last Answer : C. Haemolysis

What is true of nicotinic acid as well as nicotinamide: A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity B. Both cause cutaneous vasodilatation C. Both lower plasma triglyceride and VLDL levels D. Both cause hyperglycaemia after prolonged medication

Description : What is true of nicotinic acid as well as nicotinamide: A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity B. Both cause cutaneous vasodilatation C. Both lower plasma triglyceride and VLDL levels D. Both cause hyperglycaemia after prolonged medication

Last Answer : A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity

Blood flow in the following vascular bed generally decreases under the influence of glyceryl trinitrate: A. Coronary B. Cutaneous C. Renal D. Cranial

Description : Blood flow in the following vascular bed generally decreases under the influence of glyceryl trinitrate: A. Coronary B. Cutaneous C. Renal D. Cranial

Last Answer : C. Renal

The following vascular bed is constricted by caffeine: A. Coronary B. Cutaneous C. Cranial D. Mesenteric

Description : The following vascular bed is constricted by caffeine: A. Coronary B. Cutaneous C. Cranial D. Mesenteric

Last Answer : C. Cranial

Aspirin reduces fever by: A. Decreasing heat production in the body B. Enhancing cutaneous blood flow C. Inducing sweating D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Aspirin reduces fever by: A. Decreasing heat production in the body B. Enhancing cutaneous blood flow C. Inducing sweating D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct  

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct 

Hepatitis with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin: A. Erythromycin base B. Erythromycin stearate C. Erythromycin estolate D. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Description : Hepatitis with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin: A. Erythromycin base B. Erythromycin stearate C. Erythromycin estolate D. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Last Answer : C. Erythromycin estolate

The most common adverse reaction to insulin is: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Lipodystrophy C. Urticaria D. Angioedema

Description : The most common adverse reaction to insulin is: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Lipodystrophy C. Urticaria D. Angioedema

Last Answer : A. Hypoglycaemia

Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction: A. Muscle dystonia caused by triflupromazine B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone C. Precipitation of asthma by morphine D. Gum hyperplasia caused by phenytoin

Description : Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction: A. Muscle dystonia caused by triflupromazine B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone C. Precipitation of asthma by morphine D. Gum hyperplasia caused by phenytoin

Last Answer : B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone

Select the macrolide antibiotic that can be given once daily for 3 days for empirical treatment of ear-nosethroat, respiratory and genital infections: A. Erythromycin B. Azithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Clarithromycin

Description : Select the macrolide antibiotic that can be given once daily for 3 days for empirical treatment of ear-nosethroat, respiratory and genital infections: A. Erythromycin B. Azithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Clarithromycin

Last Answer : B. Azithromycin

What contraindicates pulp capping: A. Accidental exposure on vital young molars B. When inflammation of radicular pulp is already present C. When roots are greatly curved and tortuous D. When anterior tooth is vital and immature with wide open apices E. None of the above

Description : What contraindicates pulp capping: A. Accidental exposure on vital young molars B. When inflammation of radicular pulp is already present C. When roots are greatly curved and tortuous D. When anterior tooth is vital and immature with wide open apices E. None of the above

Last Answer : B. When inflammation of radicular pulp is already present

Oral contraceptive use increases the risk of occurrence of the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Leg vein thrombosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Gall stones

Description : Oral contraceptive use increases the risk of occurrence of the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Leg vein thrombosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Gall stones

Last Answer : C. Endometrial carcinoma

Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Description : Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Last Answer : B. Inflammation

Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Description : Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Last Answer : B. Inflammation

A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood pressure and sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole

Description : A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal ... drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole

Last Answer : C. Loperamide

Stimulant purgatives are contraindicated in the following: A. Bed ridden patients B. Before abdominal radiography C. Spastic constipation D. Atonic constipation

Description : Stimulant purgatives are contraindicated in the following: A. Bed ridden patients B. Before abdominal radiography C. Spastic constipation D. Atonic constipation

Last Answer : C. Spastic constipation

A patient presented with abdominal pain and frequent unsatisfactory bowel movement. For the last one year he has been using a purgative twice weekly to open his bowel. On colonoscopy the colon was found to be atonic with bluish pigmentation of the mucosa. Which is the most likely purgative that the patient has been using: A. Liquid paraffin B. Ispaghula C. Senna D. Lactulose

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Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

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Last Answer : A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in eld

Low concentration of bupivacaine is preferred for spinal / epidural obstetric analgesia because: A. It has a longer duration of action B. It can produce sensory blockade without paralysing abdominal muscles C. It distributes more in maternal tissues so that less reaches the foetus D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low concentration of bupivacaine is preferred for spinal / epidural obstetric analgesia because: A. It has a longer duration of action B. It can produce sensory blockade without paralysing abdominal muscles C. ... in maternal tissues so that less reaches the foetus D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Diazepam is used as a muscle relaxant for: A. Deep intra-abdominal operation B. Tracheal intubation C. Tetanus D. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

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Last Answer : C. Tetanus

Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

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Last Answer : C. Primaquine