Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for: A. Multibacillary leprosy B. Paucibacillary leprosy C. Dapsone resistant leprosy D. All forms of leprosy

Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for:
A. Multibacillary leprosy
B. Paucibacillary leprosy
C. Dapsone resistant leprosy
D. All forms of leprosy
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All forms of leprosy
by

Related questions

The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary and multibacillary cases C. No resistance to rifampin develops despite its use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Description : The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary ... use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Last Answer : A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases

If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen

Currently, monotherapy of leprosy with dapsone is recommended for: A. Paucibacillary leprosy only B. Multibacillary leprosy only C. Both paucibacillary and multibacillary leprosy D. Neither paucibacillary nor multibacillary leprosy

Description : Currently, monotherapy of leprosy with dapsone is recommended for: A. Paucibacillary leprosy only B. Multibacillary leprosy only C. Both paucibacillary and multibacillary leprosy D. Neither paucibacillary nor multibacillary leprosy

Last Answer : D. Neither paucibacillary nor multibacillary leprosy

Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. Two years or more till disease inactivity is attained D. One year for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more

Description : Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. ... for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more

Last Answer : B. One year fixed duration for all cases

he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above

Description : he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

Description : A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

Last Answer : C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

In the multidrug therapy of leprosy, rifampicin is given: A. Daily B. On alternate days C. Weekly D. Monthly

Description : In the multidrug therapy of leprosy, rifampicin is given: A. Daily B. On alternate days C. Weekly D. Monthly

Last Answer : D. Monthly

Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Description : Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Last Answer : C. Clofazimine

Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not active against P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain

Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient

Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

Last Answer : B. Ofloxacin

Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. Produces more rapid sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment of migraine attacks C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Description : Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment ... resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases

Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any single effective drug in case of the following diseases except: A. Typhoid fever B. Leprosy C. AIDS D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Description : Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any single effective drug in case of the following diseases except: A. Typhoid fever B. Leprosy C. AIDS D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Last Answer : A. Typhoid fever

Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Last Answer : C. 6 months

Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the treatment of tuberculosis: A. Respiratory syndrome B. Cutaneous syndrome C. Flu syndrome D. Abdominal syndrome

Description : Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the treatment of tuberculosis: A. Respiratory syndrome B. Cutaneous syndrome C. Flu syndrome D. Abdominal syndrome

Last Answer : A. Respiratory syndrome

Intravenous saline infusion is the treatment of choice for the following complication(s) of vigorous furosemide therapy: A. Dilutional hyponatremia B. Acute saline depletion C. Hypokalemia D. All of the above

Description : Intravenous saline infusion is the treatment of choice for the following complication(s) of vigorous furosemide therapy: A. Dilutional hyponatremia B. Acute saline depletion C. Hypokalemia D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Acute saline depletion

The most important dose dependent toxicity of dapsone is: A. Methemoglobinemia B. Haemolysis C. Hepatitis D. Dermatitis

Description : The most important dose dependent toxicity of dapsone is: A. Methemoglobinemia B. Haemolysis C. Hepatitis D. Dermatitis

Last Answer : B. Haemolysi

The most important mechanism of concurrent acquisition of multidrug resistance among bacteria is: A. Mutation B. Conjugation C. Transduction D. Transformation

Description : The most important mechanism of concurrent acquisition of multidrug resistance among bacteria is: A. Mutation B. Conjugation C. Transduction D. Transformation

Last Answer : B. Conjugation

Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Description : Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : D. Mefloquine

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following strategy will promote rather than curb emergence of antibiotic resistant micro-organisms: A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics B. Prefer a narrow spectrum antibiotic to a broad spectrum one if both are equally effective C. Prefer short and intensive courses of antibiotics D. Use antibiotic combinations for prolonged therapy

Description : The following strategy will promote rather than curb emergence of antibiotic resistant micro-organisms: A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics B. Prefer a narrow spectrum ... Prefer short and intensive courses of antibiotics D. Use antibiotic combinations for prolonged therapy

Last Answer : A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics

What does multidrug resistant organism mean?

Description : What does multidrug resistant organism mean?

Last Answer : It means that multiple drugs that are commonly used to treat itno longer work. So it means the "bug" is a "superbug" and harder totreat.

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin? (a) Amikacin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Gentamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Spectinomycin

Description : Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin? (a) Amikacin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Gentamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Spectinomycin

Last Answer : Ans: A

Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex

The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis

Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. They are used when diuretics alone fail C. They are a substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Description : Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. ... substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Last Answer : D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6 months B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2 months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone for 6 months C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months

Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin

Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Last Answer : C. Ethambutol

Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria

Description : Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria

Last Answer : A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide

Description : The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide

Last Answer : B. Rifampin

A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following measures would you recommend: A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine B. Substitute isoniazid with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine

Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Description : Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Last Answer : B. Vancomycin

4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved C. They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Description : 4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should ... antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved

The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg 3 times a day × 7 days with pyrimethamine 75 mg + sulfadoxine 1500 mg on first day C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Description : The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg ... 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days

Apart from its use in tuberculosis and leprosy, rifampin is a first line drug for the following infective disease: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Brucellosis C. Donovanosis D. Leishmaniasis

Description : Apart from its use in tuberculosis and leprosy, rifampin is a first line drug for the following infective disease: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Brucellosis C. Donovanosis D. Leishmaniasis

Last Answer : B. Brucellosis

Select the condition for which 3 days treatment with pyrantel pamoate is recommended in place of single dose therapy for others: A. Ascariasis B. Ancylostomiasis C. Necatoriasis D. Enterobiasis

Description : Select the condition for which 3 days treatment with pyrantel pamoate is recommended in place of single dose therapy for others: A. Ascariasis B. Ancylostomiasis C. Necatoriasis D. Enterobiasis

Last Answer : C. Necatoriasis

What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief as well as prevents recurrences C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Description : What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords ... does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Last Answer : C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences

What is true of drug therapy of typhoid fever: A. Combination of chloramphenicol with ciprofloxacin is superior to either drug alone B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting and most dependable treatment C. Prolonged treatment with chloramphenicol eradicates typhoid carrier state D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of drug therapy of typhoid fever: A. Combination of chloramphenicol with ciprofloxacin is superior to either drug alone B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting ... C. Prolonged treatment with chloramphenicol eradicates typhoid carrier state D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting and most dependable treatment

Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial infarction due to estrogen B. Blocks the increased risk of endometrial carcinoma due to estrogen C. Reverses vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial ... vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

Last Answer : The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is: A. Ethinylestradiol B. Estradiol benzoate C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Conjugated estrogens

The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is: A. Cloxacillin B. Vancomycin C. Erythromycin D. Amikacin

Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is: A. Cloxacillin B. Vancomycin C. Erythromycin D. Amikacin

Last Answer : B. Vancomycin

Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first choice antibiotic for any specific infection C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Description : Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first ... of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Last Answer : C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever