Description : Metronidazole is used in peridontal abscess because of activity against: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Anaerobic bacilli D. Aerobic gram positive cocci
Last Answer : C. Anaerobic bacilli
Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption
Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life
Description : Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone
Last Answer : D. Furazolidone
Description : Mycoplasmas, rickettsiae, and chlamydiae are A- .types of fungi B- small bacteria C- species of protozoa D- forms of viruses
Last Answer : small bacteria
Description : Leishmania donovani is susceptible to certain antifungal drugs because both fungi and Leishmania: A. Utilise purine salvage pathway B. Utilise similar glycolytic mechanisms C. Have similar topoisomerase II enzyme D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes
Last Answer : D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes
Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity
Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical
Description : Antimicrobials effective against anaerobic bacteria include the following except: A. Tobramycin B. Clindamicin C. Chloramphenicol D. Metronidazole
Last Answer : A. Tobramycin
Description : --------- prokaryotic microorganism A Fungi B Rickettsiae C Algae D Protozoa
Last Answer : B Rickettsiae
Description : The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient ... therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
Last Answer : Answer: a, e The primary treatment for a perforated viscus is surgical, however antimicrobial therapy is an extremely important adjunct. Empiric antibiotic therapy for secondary ... whereas longer periods are indicated for immunosuppressed patients and with patients with extensive contamination
Description : n addition to malarial parasite, chloroquine is active against: A. Microfilariae B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Dermatophytes
Last Answer : C. Entamoeba histolytica
Description : If a necrotizing soft tissue infection is considered, therapy mandates: a. Empiric administration of antibiotics active against gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria b. Due to usually ... is mandatory d. The use of hyperbaric oxygen has been demonstrated to be clearly advantageous
Last Answer : Answer: a, c Identification of a necrotizing, soft tissue infection mandates immediate operative intervention with aggressive resection of all involved tissues and empiric ... remains without controlled trials demonstrating any additional benefits derived from hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Description : The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity
Last Answer : B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis
Description : The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin
Last Answer : C. Clindamycin
Description : Neomycin is widely used as a topical antibiotic because: A. It is active against a wide range of bacteria causing superfecial infections B. It rarely causes contact sensitization C. It is poorly absorbed from the topical sites of application D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct
Description : Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Yersinia pestis
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections
Last Answer : B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Description : The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are: A. It is unstable in aqueous solution B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Nalidixic acid is primarily active against: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Gram positive bacteria D. Gram negative bacteria
Last Answer : D. Gram negative bacteria
Description : What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Description : The drug of choice for Kala azar is: A. Pentamidine B. Amphotericin B C. Sodium stibogluconate D. Ketoconazole
Last Answer : C. Sodium stibogluconat
Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis
Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis
Description : Which antifungal agent is effective in both dermatophytosis as well as systemic mycosis: A. Amphotericin B B. Griseofulvin C. Clotrimazole D. Ketoconazole
Last Answer : D. Ketoconazole
Description : Select the antifungal drug which is administered only by the oral route: A. Amphotericin B B. Ketoconazole C. Griseofulvin D. Tolnaftate
Last Answer : C. Griseofulvin
Description : Indicate the antifungal antibiotic which is used intravenously for systemic mycosis: A. Griseofulvin B. Nystatin C. Amphotericin B D. Hamycin
Last Answer : C. Amphotericin
Description : The newer lipid formulations of amphotericin B differ from the conventional formulation in the following respects except: A. They are more efficacious B. They produce milder acute reaction C. They are less nephrotoxic D. They produce milder anaemia
Last Answer : A. They are more efficacious
Description : The most important toxicity of amphotericin B is: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Neurotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Bone marrow depression
Last Answer : A. Nephrotoxicity
Description : Amphotericin B is not effective in the following fungal disease: A. Cryptococcosis B. Histoplasmosis C. Blastomycosis D. Dermatophytosis
Last Answer : D. Dermatophytosis
Description : Anaerobic degradation of proteins brought about by bacteria and fungi give the products like A- mercaptans and indole B-H2S C-both (a) and (b) D-None of these
Last Answer : both (a) and (b)
Description : The oldest eukaryotic organisms are considered to be A- diplomonads like Giardia B- archaea C- fungi D- animals
Last Answer : archaea
Description : The type of bacteria which is active in trickling filter during biological treatment of sewage is the __________ bacteria. (A) Anaerobic (B) Saprophytic (C) Aerobic (D) Parasitic
Last Answer : (C) Aerobic
Description : The following is true for gentamicin: A. It is more active in acidic medium B. It has a wide margin of safety C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration D. It primarily inhibits gram positive bacteria
Last Answer : C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration
Description : Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It ... fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm
Last Answer : A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects
Description : As an anthelmintic mebendazole has the following advantages except: A. It is active against most intestinal helminths B. It is very well tolerated C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestation D. It does not require predrug fasting or postdrug purging
Last Answer : C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestatio
Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain
Description : The following antimalarial drug is more active against pre-and exoerythrocytic stages of the malarial parasite than against the erythrocytic stage: A. Proguanil B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine D. Halofantrine
Last Answer : B. Primaquine
Description : The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine
Last Answer : B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria
Description : If a drug is active against the preerythrocytic stage of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Causal prophylactic C. Clinical curative D. Radical curative
Last Answer : B. Causal prophylactic
Description : Select the drug that is active against both HIV and hepatitis B virus: A. Lamivudine B. Indinavir C. Didanosine D. Efavirenz
Last Answer : A. Lamivudine
Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis
Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex
Description : Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin
Last Answer : B. Ofloxacin
Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier
Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria
Description : Indicate the attribute that is common to both polymyxin B and bacitracin: A. Both are active against gram negative bacteria B. Both are too toxic for systemic use C. Both act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis D. Both a
Last Answer : B. Both are too toxic for systemic use
Description : What is true of Quinupristin-Dalfopristin: A. It is a synergistic combination of two similar antibiotics B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is active against most resistant coccal infections D. All of the above are correct
Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion
Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis
Description : Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis
Last Answer : B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris
Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics
Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias
Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following property common to all members: A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. They are more active in acidic medium C. They ... cells and are distributed in total body water D. They are nearly completely metabolized in liver
Last Answer : A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli
Description : Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against: A. Bateroides fragilis B. Treponema pallidum C. Streptococci D. Staphylococci
Last Answer : a
Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits
Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low