Chemoprophylaxis of malaria is recommended for the following category of subjects: A. Residents of nonendemic areas B. Residents of endemic areas C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic areas D. Travellers from endemic to nonendemic areas

Chemoprophylaxis of malaria is recommended for
the following category of subjects:
A. Residents of nonendemic areas
B. Residents of endemic areas
C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic
areas
D. Travellers from endemic to nonendemic
areas
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic
areas
by

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Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patients C. Adult contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

Radical cure of vivax malaria should be attempted in: A. Areas where only sporadic cases occur B. Endemic areas with effective vector control measures C. Endemic areas not covered by vector control D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : Radical cure of vivax malaria should be attempted in: A. Areas where only sporadic cases occur B. Endemic areas with effective vector control measures C. Endemic areas not covered by vector control D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

Consumption of alcoholic beverages in moderate amounts can be allowed for the following category of subjects: A. Epileptics B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction C. Gastroesophageal reflux patients D. Pregnant women

Description : Consumption of alcoholic beverages in moderate amounts can be allowed for the following category of subjects: A. Epileptics B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction C. Gastroesophageal reflux patients D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination is used as clinical curative but is not recommended for prophylaxis of malaria because of: A. Risk of megaloblastic anaemia due to pyrimethamine B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine C. Need for daily administration of the d

Description : Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination is used as clinical curative but is not recommended for prophylaxis of malaria because of: A. Risk of megaloblastic anaemia due to pyrimethamine B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine C. Need for daily administration of the d

Last Answer : B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine

The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg 3 times a day × 7 days with pyrimethamine 75 mg + sulfadoxine 1500 mg on first day C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Description : The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg ... 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Description : Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Last Answer : B. Prosthetic heart valves

Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine should be used as a: A. Clinical curative in areas with chloroquine resistant malaria B. Clinical curative in areas without chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum C. Prophylactic in areas with or without chloroquine resistance D. All of the above

Description : Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine should be used as a: A. Clinical curative in areas with chloroquine resistant malaria B. Clinical curative in areas without chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum C. Prophylactic in areas with or without chloroquine resistance D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Clinical curative in areas with chloroquine resistant malaria

The following diarrhoea is consistently benefited by antimicrobial therapy: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Cholera C. Salmonella diarrhoeas D. Traveller’s diarrhoea

Description : The following diarrhoea is consistently benefited by antimicrobial therapy: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Cholera C. Salmonella diarrhoeas D. Traveller’s diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. Cholera

elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Description : elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : B. Proguanil + Chloroquine

The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except: A. Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient B. Prophylaxis of endemic goiter C. As antiseptic D. As expectorant

Description : The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except: A. Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient B. Prophylaxis of endemic goiter C. As antiseptic D. As expectorant

Last Answer : C. As antiseptic

Triiodothyronine is preferred over thyroxine in the treatment of: A. Endemic goiter B. Cretinism C. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid D. Myxoedema coma

Description : Triiodothyronine is preferred over thyroxine in the treatment of: A. Endemic goiter B. Cretinism C. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid D. Myxoedema coma

Last Answer : D. Myxoedema coma

Consumption of iodised salt is recommended for prevention of (A) Hypertension (B) Hyperthyroidism (C) Endemic goitre (D) None of these

Description : Consumption of iodised salt is recommended for prevention of (A) Hypertension (B) Hyperthyroidism (C) Endemic goitre (D) None of these

Last Answer : C

All the following statements about endemic goiter are true except (A) It occurs in areas where soil and water have low iodine content (B) It leads to enlargement of thyroid gland (C) It results ultimately in hyperthyroidism (D) It can be prevented by consumption of iodised salt

Description : All the following statements about endemic goiter are true except (A) It occurs in areas where soil and water have low iodine content (B) It leads to enlargement of thyroid gland (C) It results ultimately in hyperthyroidism (D) It can be prevented by consumption of iodised salt

Last Answer : Answer : C

Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not active against P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain

Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Description : Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : D. Mefloquine

Indicate the drug that can be used as an alternative to primaquine for radical cure of vivax malaria: A. Atovaquone B. Bulaquine C. Tetracycline D. Proguanil

Description : Indicate the drug that can be used as an alternative to primaquine for radical cure of vivax malaria: A. Atovaquone B. Bulaquine C. Tetracycline D. Proguanil

Last Answer : B. Bulaquine

Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Its schizontocidal action is slow

The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine

Description : The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine

Last Answer : B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria

Clinical applications of quinine include the following except: A. Uncomplicated chloroquine resistant malaria B. Cerebral malaria C. To induce abortion D. Nocturnal leg cramps

Description : Clinical applications of quinine include the following except: A. Uncomplicated chloroquine resistant malaria B. Cerebral malaria C. To induce abortion D. Nocturnal leg cramps

Last Answer : C. To induce abortion

The drug of choice for cerebral malaria due to P. falciparum is: A. Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine D. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine

Description : The drug of choice for cerebral malaria due to P. falciparum is: A. Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine D. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine

Last Answer : A. Quinine

The following drug is a radical curative in vivax malaria: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Mefloquine D. Chloroquine

Description : The following drug is a radical curative in vivax malaria: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Mefloquine D. Chloroquine

Last Answer : B. Primaquine

Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

Description : Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

Last Answer : B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria

Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate

Description : Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Description : A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

The following drug should be used only as clinical curative but not as prophylactic in malaria: A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine B. Proguanil C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Description : The following drug should be used only as clinical curative but not as prophylactic in malaria: A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine B. Proguanil C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine

Recrudescence of malaria refers to recurrence of malarial fever due to: A. Reinfection of the patient by mosquito bite B. Reinfection of blood by exoerythrocytic hypnozoites C. Incomplete clearance of schizonts from blood D. Any of the above

Description : Recrudescence of malaria refers to recurrence of malarial fever due to: A. Reinfection of the patient by mosquito bite B. Reinfection of blood by exoerythrocytic hypnozoites C. Incomplete clearance of schizonts from blood D. Any of the above

Last Answer : C. Incomplete clearance of schizonts from blood

An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the drug that you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

Description : An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the ... you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

Last Answer : B. Doxycycline

The following drug is a causal prophylactic for falciparum malaria and suppressive prophylactic for vivax malaria: A. Chloroquine B. Mepacrine C. Quinine D. Proguanil

Description : The following drug is a causal prophylactic for falciparum malaria and suppressive prophylactic for vivax malaria: A. Chloroquine B. Mepacrine C. Quinine D. Proguanil

Last Answer : D. Proguanil

Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Description : Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Description : Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Choose the correct statement about amantadine: A. It is an antimetabolite used for viral infections B. It prevents penetration of the virus into the host cell C. It is used to protect high risk subjects during an influenza A2 epidemic D. Concurrent administration of amantadine prevents antibody response to influenza vaccine

Description : Choose the correct statement about amantadine: A. It is an antimetabolite used for viral infections B. It prevents penetration of the virus into the host cell C. It is used ... during an influenza A2 epidemic D. Concurrent administration of amantadine prevents antibody response to influenza vaccine

Last Answer : C. It is used to protect high risk subjects during an influenza A2 epidemic

Currently, monotherapy with zidovudine is recommended for: A. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count more than 200/μl B. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl C. HIV positive subjects with opportunistic infection D. None of the above

Description : Currently, monotherapy with zidovudine is recommended for: A. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count more than 200/μl B. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl C. HIV positive subjects with opportunistic infection D. None of the above

Last Answer : D. None of the above

Specific drug therapy to lower serum triglycerides (TG) in a subject with normal LDL-cholesterol level is indicated: A. In all subjects with serum TG> 150 mg/dl B. In subjects with existing coronary artery disease and serum TG > 150 mg/dl C. In subjects with HDL-cholesterol < 40 mg/dl and serum TG > 150 mg/dl D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Specific drug therapy to lower serum triglycerides (TG) in a subject with normal LDL-cholesterol level is indicated: A. In all subjects with serum TG> 150 mg/dl B. In subjects with existing coronary artery disease and serum TG ... < 40 mg/dl and serum TG > 150 mg/dl D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

A drug which preferentially dilates autoregulatory coronary arterioles with little effect on large conducting vessels is likely to: A. Evoke coronary steal phenomenon B. Mitigate classical angina but not variant angina C. Decrease total coronary blood flow in healthy subjects D. Avert ECG changes of ischaemia

Description : A drug which preferentially dilates autoregulatory coronary arterioles with little effect on large conducting vessels is likely to: A. Evoke coronary steal phenomenon B. Mitigate classical angina but not ... . Decrease total coronary blood flow in healthy subjects D. Avert ECG changes of ischaemia

Last Answer : A. Evoke coronary steal phenomenon

The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia

Description : The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia

Last Answer : C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia

In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death B. Reduce the incidence of fatal as well as nonfatal myocardial infarction or stroke C. Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C’

Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C

Lower dose of naloxone is required to: A. Antagonise the actions of nalorphine B. Antagonise the actions of pentazocine C. Precipitate withdrawal in mildly morphine dependent subjects D. Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

Description : Lower dose of naloxone is required to: A. Antagonise the actions of nalorphine B. Antagonise the actions of pentazocine C. Precipitate withdrawal in mildly morphine dependent subjects D. Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

Last Answer : D. Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

Choose the correct statement about pentazocine: A. It causes bradycardia and fall in blood pressure B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses C. It induces vomiting frequently D. It substitutes for morphine in dependent subjects

Description : Choose the correct statement about pentazocine: A. It causes bradycardia and fall in blood pressure B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses C. It induces vomiting frequently D. It substitutes for morphine in dependent subjects

Last Answer : B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses

The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The subjective effects of morphine include the following except: A. Dysphoria in many uninitiated individuals B. Euphoria in dependent subjects C. Visual hallucinations D. Detachment to self and surrounding

Description : The subjective effects of morphine include the following except: A. Dysphoria in many uninitiated individuals B. Euphoria in dependent subjects C. Visual hallucinations D. Detachment to self and surrounding

Last Answer : C. Visual hallucination

Estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal women is contraindicated in subjects with: A. Leg vein thrombosis B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding C. Migraine D. All of the above

Description : Estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal women is contraindicated in subjects with: A. Leg vein thrombosis B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding C. Migraine D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics

The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Description : The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Last Answer : A. Are more potent

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'