Readability 2 means that your transmission is:  
a. Readable but with difficulty  
b. Readable  
c. Readable now and then  
d. Two way communications have been established

1 Answer

Answer :

c. Readable now and then

Related questions

Description : Readability 2 means that your transmission is: a. Readable but with difficulty b. Readable c. Readable now and then d. Two way communications have been established

Last Answer : c. Readable now and then

Description : The message “READABILITY 3” means: a. Readable now and then b. Unreadable c. Readable d. Readable but with difficulty

Last Answer : d. Readable but with difficulty

Description : The message “READABILITY 3” means: a. Readable now and then b. Unreadable c. Readable d. Readable but with difficulty

Last Answer : d. Readable but with difficulty

Description : Readability 2 means that your transmission is:

Last Answer : readable now and then

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

Description : The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is: a. 3 to 30 MHz b. 88 to 108 MHz c. 108.0 to 139.95 MHz d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

Last Answer : d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

Description : The time given in aeronautical communications is: a. Local mean time b. In minutes only c. UTC d. Daylight saving time

Last Answer : c. UTC

Description : The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: a. Loss of communications b. Distress c. Urgency d. Hijacking

Last Answer : a. Loss of communications

Description : The definition of the instruction “MONITORO” is: a. Listen out on frequency b. Establish communications on frequency c. Watch out for visual signals on frequency d. You are being watched

Last Answer : a. Listen out on frequency

Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA

Description : The term “CORRECTION” is used when: a. The readback of a message is incorrect b. The readback of a message is correct c. The message has to be deleted d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

Last Answer : d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

Description : The term “DISREGARD” means: a. Ignore b. Cancel the last clearance c. You have not been cleared d. Pay no attention to what I say

Last Answer : a. Ignore

Description : The term “RECLEARED” means that: a. Your last clearance is confirmed b. Your last clearance has been cancelled c. You may proceed as you please d. A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance

Last Answer : d. A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance

Description : When making a blind transmission you should: a. Transmit the message twice b. Transmit each word twice c. Repeat the message on 121.5 MHz d. Wait for visual signals

Last Answer : a. Transmit the message twice

Description : The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position

Last Answer : c. Wait and I will call you

Description : The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers

Last Answer : b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers

Description : The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn

Last Answer : c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only

Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery

Last Answer : a. Poor

Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure

Description : When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, ... on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Last Answer : a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

Description : The message “READABILITY 3’’ means

Last Answer : readable but with diffuculty

Description : The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce ... d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water

Last Answer : c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first

Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Description : In telecommunications when we call data communications it means the transmission of________. A. Voice and video B. Voice C. Video D. Computer data

Last Answer : D. Computer data

Description : Fuel is to be jettisoned: a. Over the sea and then only above 10,000ft b. Over the sea or over land above 10,000ft AGL c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter

Last Answer : c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency

Description : What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision? a. Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew b. Consider all implications c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion d. Monitor his motor programme (flying)

Last Answer : c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion

Description : If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: a. WORDS TWICE b. I REPEAT c. I SAY AGAIN d. DITTO

Last Answer : c. I SAY AGAIN

Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission

Description : A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outward and then moves the arms outwards. What does the signal indicate? a. Clear to move forward b. Brakes off c. Remove chocks d. Clear to close all engines

Last Answer : c. Remove chocks

Description : To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

Last Answer : a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days

Description : If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an aerodrome, what should be entered in Box 16 of the Flight Plan? a. ZZZZ b. NNNN c. A/N d. A/D XXX

Last Answer : a. ZZZZ

Description : You have been intercepted in the airspace of a foreign contracting state. What is the signal for ‘clear to proceed’ from the intercepting aircraft? a. Rocking wings b. Flashing lights c. Cut across track d. Breaking turn up and left

Last Answer : d. Breaking turn up and left

Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Last Answer : b. increased

Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster

Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag

Description : Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal ... greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Last Answer : b. These forces are equal

Description : The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that: a. There is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle but there is no need for immediate assistance ... and requires immediate assistance c. The aircraft has crashed d. The aircraft is being hijacked

Last Answer : b. The aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance

Description : If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light? a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed c. Only at night with engines running d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Last Answer : d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

Description : One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is: a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner b. For the ... to direct passengers' attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them

Last Answer : c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions

Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless ... , if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

Description : Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small ... aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Last Answer : d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Description : A cylinder head temperature gauge measures: a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two

Last Answer : a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder

Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll