Description : The best EAS/Drag ratio is approximately: a. 1.3 VMD b. 1.32 VMD c. 1.6 VMD d. 1.8 VMD
Last Answer : b. 1.32 VMD
Description : The maximum induced drag occurs at a speed of: a. VMD b. VMP c. VSO d. VATO
Last Answer : c. VSO
Description : To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio
Last Answer : d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio
Description : Which of the following would give the greatest gliding performance? a. Flight at VMD b. Flight at 1.32VMD c. Flight at the best CL/CD ratio d. Flight close to CL MAX
Last Answer : d. Flight close to CL MAX
Description : What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag? a. Increased aspect ratio increases induced drag b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag c. Changing aspect ratio has no effect on induced drag d. Induced drag will equal 1:3 x aspect ratio/chord ratio
Last Answer : b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag
Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust
Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack
Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack
Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes
Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM
Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed
Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag
Description : What phenomenon causes induced drag? a. Wing tip vortices b. Wing tanks c. The increased pressure at the leading edge
Last Answer : a. Wing tip vortices
Description : Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack? a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing and decrease drag b. An increase in angle of attack will ... of attack will increase drag d. An increase in angle of attack will decrease the lift coefficient
Last Answer : c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag
Description : Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal ... greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal
Last Answer : b. These forces are equal
Description : At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires: a. More thrust and a lower coefficient of lift b. Less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift c. More thrust and a lower coefficient of drag d. A higher coefficient of lift
Last Answer : d. A higher coefficient of lift
Description : When does THRUST = DRAG? a. Climbing at a constant IAS b. Descending at a constant IAS c. Flying level at a constant IAS d. All of the above
Last Answer : c. Flying level at a constant IAS
Description : Where is the 300mb level approximately in ISA? a. 30,000ft b. 39,000ft c. 18,000ft d. 10,000ft
Last Answer : a. 30,000ft
Description : You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will: a. Remain approximately constant b. Increase by 10 kts c. Decrease by 10 kts d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA
Last Answer : a. Remain approximately constant
Description : At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft
Last Answer : d. 41,000ft
Description : Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB /EA will be approximately: (A) ~64 (B) ~8 (C) ~16 (D) ~32
Last Answer : Answer: D
Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1
Last Answer : b. 15:1
Description : How do you control power in a jet engine? a. By controlling the mixture ratio b. By controlling the fuel flow c. By controlling the airflow d. By controlling the bleed valves
Last Answer : b. By controlling the fuel flow
Last Answer : EAS - Employment Assurance Scheme
Description : Arrange the following compound in reactivity towards EAS (Electrophilic aromatic substitution) reaction ?
Last Answer : Arrange the following compound in reactivity towards EAS (Electrophilic aromatic substitution) reaction ? A. `A gt B gt ... A` D. `C gt B gt D gt A`
Description : TAFs are usually valid for: a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself b. For 18 hours c. For 24 hours d. For 8 hours
Last Answer : a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself
Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft
Last Answer : b. 10,000ft
Description : Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
Last Answer : c. 5
Description : Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
Last Answer : b. 5
Description : When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC ... less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing
Last Answer : a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC
Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg
Last Answer : b. 2800kg
Description : An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there? a. 4 b. 5 c. 3 d. 6
Description : or a given spray sample: A. The volume median diameter (VMD) is equal to number median diameter (NMD). B. The VMD is less than the NMD. C. The VMD is larger than the NMD. D. None of the above.
Last Answer : C. The VMD is larger than the NMD.
Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment
Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll
Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same
Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper
Description : What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true ... c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed
Last Answer : a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Description : Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind
Last Answer : c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind
Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt
Last Answer : c. 99kt
Description : A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw
Last Answer : c. Augments stability
Description : If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase
Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered
Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude
Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power
Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach
Last Answer : b. increased
Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed
Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster
Description : The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps
Last Answer : c. The elevators
Description : To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with: a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb ... at best rate of climb speed (Vy) d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)
Last Answer : d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)
Description : Which of the following increases the stall angle? a. Slats b. Flaps c. Spoilers d. Ailerons
Last Answer : a. Slats