Description : Amoebic liver abscesses is the most common form of A A. Extraintestinal amaebiasis B. Pulmonary amoebiasis C. Cutaneous amoebiasis D. All above
Last Answer : Extraintestinal amaebiasis
Description : Which of the following is NOT a method of getting anthrax? a. Inhalation b. Intestinal c. Cutaneous d. Urinary
Last Answer : d. Urinary
Description : Sulfamethoxypyridazine and other related long acting sulfonamides have now gone into disuse because (a) They have produced serious cutaneous reactions (b) They have produced high incidence of crystalluria (c) They interact with many drugs (d) They do not penetrate blood-brain barrier
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if ... (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential
Description : Signs and Symptoms of COPD-Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease?
Last Answer : COPD stands for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease. It is the number one cause of sickness and death across the globe. COPD is a lung disease that is composed of two or more lung conditions, such as ... patients. It is vital for smokers to quit to avoid the onset of COPD or worsening of symptoms.
Description : Symptoms of circulatory systemic overload during excessive IV fluids include all except A) Oliguria B) Increased BP C) Anxiety D) Pulmonary edema
Description : What are the symptoms of intestinal flu?
Last Answer : Signs and symptoms for someone with intestinal flu can vary from person to person. Some include: diarrhea, vomiting lasting for 5 days, fever and nausea. One can also have moderate to severe abdominal pain.
Description : Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the ... from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d A number of studies have examined the effects of TPN on intestinal function and immunity. Although most of these studies have been done in animal models, ... the release of bacteria and/or cytokines leading to pronounced systemic responses and possibly multiple organ failure
Description : The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of ... in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.
Last Answer : a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings.
Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage
Description : What causes a reduce of pulmonary ventilation: A. Laryngeal muscle paralysis B. Air way obstruction
Last Answer : A. Laryngeal muscle paralysis
Description : The following is true of fenfluramine except: A. It lacks CNS stimulant action B. Its use has been associated with cardiac abnormalities and pulmonary hypertension C. It causes weight loss independent of reduced food intake D. It enhances serotonergic transmission in the brain
Last Answer : C. It causes weight loss independent of reduced food intake
Description : Cutaneous anthrax?
Last Answer : DefinitionCutaneous anthrax is an infection of the skin due to direct contact with the bacteria Bacillus anthracis.Alternative NamesAnthrax - skinCauses, incidence, and risk factorsAnthrax is caused by the bacteria ... occurs after the bacteria touch a cut or scrape on the skin.Anthrax is a p
Description : Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa ... EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds
Last Answer : Answer: a, d IL-1 appears to be important in the process of normal wound repair. IL-1 has been shown to stimulate skin fibroblast and keratinocyte growth, as well as ... that recombinant EGF enhances keratinocyte migration. EGF is also a potent chemoattractant for granulation tissue fibroblasts
Description : Low doses of adrenaline dilate the following vascular bed (a) Cutaneous (b) Mucosal (c) Renal (d) Skeletal muscle
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Aspirin reduces fever by (a) Decreasing heat production in the body (b) Enhancing cutaneous blood flow (c) Inducing sweating (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : Fentanyl transdermal patches have been used postoperatively to provide transdermal analgesia. The most dangerous adverse effect of this mode of administration is (a) Cutaneous reactions (b) Diarrhea (c) Hypertension (d) Relaxation of skeletal muscle (e) Respiratory depression
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : What happens when cutaneous exposure occurs ?
Last Answer : Cutaneous exposure results in skin lesions.
Description : Which animals make cutaneous respiration?
Last Answer : Terrestrial annelids and adult amphibians make cutaneous respiration (in amphibians there is also pulmonary respiration). The thin skin and the need for living in moist surrounds are typical features of these animals are.
Description : What is the difference between respiration by diffusion and cutaneous respiration? Does blood participate in cutaneous respiration?
Last Answer : Cutaneous respiration is not as simple as diffusion. In diffusion the gases diffuse directly between the external environment and the cells. In cutaneous respiration molecular oxygen penetrates ... of blood in cutaneous respiration. Breathing Process Review - Image Diversity: cutaneous respiration
Description : In arthropods why isn't gas exchange done through cutaneous diffusion?
Last Answer : In arthropods the impermeability of the exoskeleton makes the passage of gases difficult. In addition the new methods of respiration present in arthropods were preserved by evolution because they were more efficient for those animals.
Description : The tissue that is found in the dermis and sub-cutaneous layers of the skin are
Last Answer : areolar tissue
Description : Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM) occurs due to subcutaneous migration of the ________larvae A A. Nematode B. Cestode C. Trematode D. Protozoan
Last Answer : Nematod
Description : In AIDS, the following abnormalities are seen: a. persistent lymphopenia b. decreased interleukin-2 production c. impaired delayed cutaneous hypersensitivity reactions d. all above
Last Answer : all above
Description : _____ is a cutaneous or visceral disease transmitted by the bite of an infected female sandfly. a. Malaria b. Leishmaniasis c. Apicomplexa d. Amoebiasis
Last Answer : b. Leishmaniasis
Description : Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more ... Decrease in normal skin flora Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.
Last Answer : a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.
Description : Of the following types of cells, which are believed to play a significant role in cutaneous immune system reactions? a) Langerhans' cells Langerhans' cells are common to the epidermis and are ... and skin. d) Phagocytes Phagocytes are white blood cells that engulf and destroy foreign materials.
Last Answer : a) Langerhans’ cells Langerhans’ cells are common to the epidermis and are accessory cells of the afferent immune system process.
Description : Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by, a.Rapid growth and metastasis. b.Local cutaneous invasion. c. Inability to invade bone. d.Poor prognosis. e.Radiation resistance. f.Can not metastasise to the bone.
Last Answer : b.Local cutaneous invasion.
Description : Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be performed. Which of the following is NOT true: A. Minor post operative bleedings can be reduced somehow by using tranexamic acid B. ... takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects D. Heparin should be administered sub-cutaneous
Last Answer : C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects
Description : Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by, A. Rapid growth and metastasis B. Local cutaneous invasion C. Inability to invade bone D. Poor prognosis E. Radiation resistance F. Can not metastasise to the bon
Last Answer : B. Local cutaneous invasion
Description : Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the treatment of tuberculosis: A. Respiratory syndrome B. Cutaneous syndrome C. Flu syndrome D. Abdominal syndrome
Last Answer : A. Respiratory syndrome
Description : What is true of nicotinic acid as well as nicotinamide: A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity B. Both cause cutaneous vasodilatation C. Both lower plasma triglyceride and VLDL levels D. Both cause hyperglycaemia after prolonged medication
Last Answer : A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity
Description : Blood flow in the following vascular bed generally decreases under the influence of glyceryl trinitrate: A. Coronary B. Cutaneous C. Renal D. Cranial
Last Answer : C. Renal
Description : Low doses of adrenaline dilate the following vascular bed: A. Cutaneous B. Mucosal C. Renal D. Skeletal muscle
Last Answer : D. Skeletal muscle
Description : The following vascular bed is constricted by caffeine: A. Coronary B. Cutaneous C. Cranial D. Mesenteric
Last Answer : C. Cranial
Description : Aspirin reduces fever by: A. Decreasing heat production in the body B. Enhancing cutaneous blood flow C. Inducing sweating D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Do you have any peculiar ocular stuff going on?
Last Answer : Unfortunately, yes. I often get what is called migraine with aura. I have moments that feel like my eyes are going cross eyed (this is the best way I can think of to explain it). It's not ... see zigzag patterns, blind spots and what looks like flashing lights when this happens. It's not fun. :/
Description : If a microscope's ocular is marked 10x and the low power objective is marked 2xwhat would be the total magnification when using the low power objective?
Last Answer : What is the answer ?
Description : why arent both ocular lenses used in a binocular microscope?
Last Answer : This is because both ocular lenses are parallel, not in series. The light that passes through the sample is magnified by the objective and then the ocular, not objective and then through two ... light is important. Simply multiply the ocular (10x) by the objective to get the total magnification.
Description : The significant ocular lesion in a riboflavinosis is (A) Keratomalacia (B) Bitot’s spots (C) Vascularisation of the cornea (D) Lachrynal metaplasia
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : The significant ocular lesion in arbo flovinosis: (A) Keratomalacia (B) Bitot’s spots (C) Vascularisation of the cornea (D) lachrymal metaplasia
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes (a) Ocular evidence (b) Documentary evidence (c) Ocular and documentary evidence both (d) Ocular evidence based on documents only.
Last Answer : (c) Ocular and documentary evidence both
Description : Angiostrongylosis also called A A. Eosinophilic meningitis B. Eosinophilic dermatitis C. Ocular eosinophilia D. All of these
Last Answer : Eosinophilic meningitis
Description : The following are true about ocular circulation: a. only 4% of the total blood supply to the eye goes to the retina b. the choroidal blood flow in normal people is ten times that of the grey mater ... and choroidal circulation d. a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow
Last Answer : a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow
Description : Bradycardiac can occur in response to: a. elevated intraocular pressure b. ocular massage c. pulling of the extraocular muscle d. all above
Description : An increase in intra-ocular pressure occurs with: a. normal blinking b. coughing c. hypercarbia d. all above
Description : True statements about the retinal blood flow include: a. the retina receives 5% of total ocular blood flow b. the retinal blood flow is mainly under the sympathetic control c. the ... are impermeable to ascorbate d. the pericytes control the contractile activity of the retinal blood vessels
Last Answer : the pericytes control the contractile activity of the retinal blood vessels
Description : The following reflexes are used to test brain stem death: a. Babinski's reflexes b. accommodation c. gag reflex d. vestibular-ocular reflex
Last Answer : vestibular-ocular reflex
Description : Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment. b) Normal tension glaucoma Normal tension ... is treated initially with topical medications, with oral medications added at a later time.
Last Answer : a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.