In AIDS, the following abnormalities are seen: a. persistent lymphopenia b. decreased interleukin-2 production c. impaired delayed cutaneous hypersensitivity reactions d. all above

In AIDS, the following abnormalities are seen:
a. persistent lymphopenia
b. decreased interleukin-2 production
c. impaired delayed cutaneous hypersensitivity reactions
d. all above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

all above
by

Related questions

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Description : Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and ... d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Immediate hemolytic reactions are usually caused by blood group ABO incompatibility although they may be caused by antigens of other blood group systems ... when associated with massive transfusion during complex intraoperative procedures such as thoracoabdominal aneurysm resection

Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient’s weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit, 5% dextrose intravenous solutions are adequate for the initial postoperative source of nutrition b. Preoperative immunologic status should be determined including total peripheral lymphocyte count and delayed hypersensitivity reaction to determine skin-test response to common antigens c. Routine postoperative fluid administration with intravenous 5% glucose solutions can provide the calories to meet basal energy requirements d. A jejunal feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Description : Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient's weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit ... feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a Most patients undergoing elective operations are adequately nourished. Unless the patient has suffered significant preoperative malnutrition, characterized by weight loss greater than ... gastrointestinal surgery, this technique would not appear indicated in the patient described above

What is delayed hypersensitivity ?

Description : What is delayed hypersensitivity ?

Last Answer : We can recognize the Symptoms only days after exposure. This is delayed hypersensitivity (DTH).

The following are true about cell-mediated immunity: a. antigen-specific function is the role of the T-lymphocytes b. cell-mediated immunity can activate the complement system c. it is responsible for the delayed hypersensitivity reaction. d. Gamma interferon is an important mediator of B-cell activation.

Description : The following are true about cell-mediated immunity: a. antigen-specific function is the role of the T-lymphocytes b. cell-mediated immunity can activate the complement system c. it is ... the delayed hypersensitivity reaction. d. Gamma interferon is an important mediator of B-cell activation.

Last Answer : cell-mediated immunity can activate the complement system

In which of the following cell mediated immunity (CMI) participates? A.Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B.Graft versus host reaction C.Allograft rejection D.All of the above

Description : In which of the following cell mediated immunity (CMI) participates? A.Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B.Graft versus host reaction C.Allograft rejection D.All of the above

Last Answer : D.All of the above

In which of the following cell mediated immunity (CMI) participates? A.Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B.Graft versus host reaction C.Allograft rejection D.All of the above

Description : In which of the following cell mediated immunity (CMI) participates? A.Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B.Graft versus host reaction C.Allograft rejection D.All of the above

Last Answer : .All of the above

Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.

Description : Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of ... minutes after exposure to latex, an immediate hypersensitivity (type I) allergic reaction has occurred.

Last Answer : a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.

Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Description : Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Last Answer : B. Inflammation

The following statement about histamine is not correct: A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

Description : The following statement about histamine is not correct: A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

Last Answer : A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction

Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Description : Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Last Answer : B. Inflammation

The following statement about histamine is not correct: A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

Description : The following statement about histamine is not correct: A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

Last Answer : A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction

The most important preformed mediator of allergic reactions is/are a. Prostaglandin b. Interleukin c. Histamine d. Leukotrienes

Description : The most important preformed mediator of allergic reactions is/are a. Prostaglandin b. Interleukin c. Histamine d. Leukotrienes

Last Answer : c. Histamine

The following metabolic abnormalities occur in Diabetes mellitus except (A) Increased plasma FFA (B) Increased pyruvate carboxylase activate (C) Decreased lipogenesis (D) Decreased gluconeogenesis

Description : The following metabolic abnormalities occur in Diabetes mellitus except (A) Increased plasma FFA (B) Increased pyruvate carboxylase activate (C) Decreased lipogenesis (D) Decreased gluconeogenesis

Last Answer : B

Fentanyl transdermal patches have been used postoperatively to provide transdermal analgesia. The most dangerous adverse effect of this mode of administration is (a) Cutaneous reactions (b) Diarrhea (c) Hypertension (d) Relaxation of skeletal muscle (e) Respiratory depression

Description : Fentanyl transdermal patches have been used postoperatively to provide transdermal analgesia. The most dangerous adverse effect of this mode of administration is (a) Cutaneous reactions (b) Diarrhea (c) Hypertension (d) Relaxation of skeletal muscle (e) Respiratory depression

Last Answer : Ans: E

Sulfamethoxypyridazine and other related long acting sulfonamides have now gone into disuse because (a) They have produced serious cutaneous reactions (b) They have produced high incidence of crystalluria (c) They interact with many drugs (d) They do not penetrate blood-brain barrier

Description : Sulfamethoxypyridazine and other related long acting sulfonamides have now gone into disuse because (a) They have produced serious cutaneous reactions (b) They have produced high incidence of crystalluria (c) They interact with many drugs (d) They do not penetrate blood-brain barrier

Last Answer : Ans: A

Of the following types of cells, which are believed to play a significant role in cutaneous immune system reactions? a) Langerhans’ cells Langerhans’ cells are common to the epidermis and are accessory cells of the afferent immune system process.

Description : Of the following types of cells, which are believed to play a significant role in cutaneous immune system reactions? a) Langerhans' cells Langerhans' cells are common to the epidermis and are ... and skin. d) Phagocytes Phagocytes are white blood cells that engulf and destroy foreign materials.

Last Answer : a) Langerhans’ cells Langerhans’ cells are common to the epidermis and are accessory cells of the afferent immune system process.

: _____ is an exaggerated or inappropriate immune defense that is causing the problems in an affected individual. a. Hypersensitivity b. Autoimmune disease c. AIDS d. HIV

Description : : _____ is an exaggerated or inappropriate immune defense that is causing the problems in an affected individual. a. Hypersensitivity b. Autoimmune disease c. AIDS d. HIV

Last Answer : a. Hypersensitivity

Increased serum alanine during fasting is due to (A) Breakdown of muscle proteins (B) Decreased utilization of non essential amino acids (C) Leakage of aminoacids to plasma (D) Impaired renal function

Description : Increased serum alanine during fasting is due to (A) Breakdown of muscle proteins (B) Decreased utilization of non essential amino acids (C) Leakage of aminoacids to plasma (D) Impaired renal function

Last Answer : Answer : A

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Description : The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Last Answer : . Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Select the disorder in which methyltestosterone is beneficial but testosterone is ineffective: A. Hereditary angioneurotic edema B. Delayed puberty in a boy C. Impotence due to testicular failure D. AIDS related muscle wasting

Description : Select the disorder in which methyltestosterone is beneficial but testosterone is ineffective: A. Hereditary angioneurotic edema B. Delayed puberty in a boy C. Impotence due to testicular failure D. AIDS related muscle wasting

Last Answer : A. Hereditary angioneurotic edema

Hypersensitivity refers to undesirable reactions produced by a) circulatory system b) Respiratory system c) Immune System d) Endocrine system e) Autonomic nervous system

Description : Hypersensitivity refers to undesirable reactions produced by a) circulatory system b) Respiratory system c) Immune System d) Endocrine system e) Autonomic nervous system

Last Answer : Ans: C

In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is (a) Acid – base and electrolytc disturbances (b) Hypersensitivity and idiosyncratic reactions (c) Gastric mucosal damage (d) Salicylism

Description : In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is (a) Acid – base and electrolytc disturbances (b) Hypersensitivity and idiosyncratic reactions (c) Gastric mucosal damage (d) Salicylism

Last Answer : Ans: C

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to the drug C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Description : Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Last Answer : D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

The type II, type III and type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be suppressed by: A. Adrenaline B. Antihistaminics C. Corticosteroids D. Sod. cromoglycate

Description : The type II, type III and type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be suppressed by: A. Adrenaline B. Antihistaminics C. Corticosteroids D. Sod. cromoglycate

Last Answer : C. Corticosteroids

In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is: A. Acid-base and electrolyte disturbances B. Hypersensitivity and idiosyncratic reactions C. Gastric mucosal damage D. Salicylism

Description :  In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is: A. Acid-base and electrolyte disturbances B. Hypersensitivity and idiosyncratic reactions C. Gastric mucosal damage D. Salicylism

Last Answer : C. Gastric mucosal damage

The type II, type III and type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be suppressed by: A. Adrenaline B. Antihistaminics C. Corticosteroids D. Sod. cromoglycate

Description : The type II, type III and type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be suppressed by: A. Adrenaline B. Antihistaminics C. Corticosteroids D. Sod. cromoglycate

Last Answer : C. Corticosteroids

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hypoadrenal shock? a. In the United States, idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison’s disease) is the most common cause b. Laboratory abnormalities include hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and hyperkalemia c. Fever may be seen with hypoadrenal shock d. ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm hypoadrenal shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hypoadrenal shock? a. In the United States, idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison's disease) is the most common cause b. Laboratory ... hypoadrenal shock d. ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm hypoadrenal shock

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Shock of a dramatic nature, poorly responsive to resuscitation, may develop as a consequence of adrenal insufficiency. In this country, adrenal insufficiency most ... of an ACTH stimulation test. A significant major cortisol response should be elicited by ACTH administration

Aspirin reduces fever by (a) Decreasing heat production in the body (b) Enhancing cutaneous blood flow (c) Inducing sweating (d) Both (b) and (c)

Description : Aspirin reduces fever by (a) Decreasing heat production in the body (b) Enhancing cutaneous blood flow (c) Inducing sweating (d) Both (b) and (c)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Aspirin reduces fever by: A. Decreasing heat production in the body B. Enhancing cutaneous blood flow C. Inducing sweating D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Aspirin reduces fever by: A. Decreasing heat production in the body B. Enhancing cutaneous blood flow C. Inducing sweating D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct  

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct 

Which of the following statements concerning abnormalities of the haemoglobin molecule is true? 1) Alpha thalassaemia is due to a deficiency of beta-chain production 2) HbS is caused by a single base mutation on the beta-chain 3) genes for the alpha and beta chains are located on the same chromosome 4) in thalassaemia persistance of HbF is an adverse prognostic sign 5) oliguneoclitide probes may assist in the diagnosis of haemoglobinopathies

Description : Which of the following statements concerning abnormalities of the haemoglobin molecule is true? 1) Alpha thalassaemia is due to a deficiency of beta-chain production 2) HbS is caused by a ... is an adverse prognostic sign 5) oliguneoclitide probes may assist in the diagnosis of haemoglobinopathies

Last Answer : Answers-2 Alpha Thalassaemia is due to abnormalities of the alpha chain. Persistence of HbF has survival advnatages in severely affected subjects. C-alpha 16, beta 11. e-Hb electrophoresis(Dr Shu Ho)

A patient suffers a blow to his maxillary central incisor without resulting in fracture. The pulp may: A. Show immediate necrosis B. Become non-vital but only if treatment is delayed too long C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment D. No changes are seen later if fracture does not occur

Description : A patient suffers a blow to his maxillary central incisor without resulting in fracture. The pulp may: A. Show immediate necrosis B. Become non-vital but only if treatment is delayed too long C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment D. No changes are seen later if fracture does not occur

Last Answer : C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment

The initiation of a humoral immune response involves a complex interaction of the antigen, cells and intercellular messengers. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the initiation of the humoral immune response is/are correct? a. Helper T lymphocytes stimulate B lymphocytes through secretion of cytokines such as interleukin 4 and 6 b. A number of cells can aid in presenting the antigen to the helper T cell including B lymphocytes and macrophages c. All antigens require coordinated efforts of the various cellular components of the immune system d. An antigen must be a living microorganism

Description : The initiation of a humoral immune response involves a complex interaction of the antigen, cells and intercellular messengers. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the initiation of the ... various cellular components of the immune system d. An antigen must be a living microorganism

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Stimulation of the immune system occurs after a variety of antigen-presenting cells (B lymphocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, and Langerhans cells) act to engulf ... polysaccharides), most antigens require coordinated efforts of the various cellular components of the immune system

Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Description : Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Polypeptide mediators, such as TNFa and IL-1, are considered early response cytokines and are actively involved in the initiation of the ... of tissue repair. Thus, coagulation and platelet activation provide the initial foundation for subsequent cellular recruitment

Products of platelet degranulation include: a. Tumor necrosis factor b. Interleukin-1 c. Transforming growth factor b d. Platelet-derived growth factor

Description : Products of platelet degranulation include: a. Tumor necrosis factor b. Interleukin-1 c. Transforming growth factor b d. Platelet-derived growth factor

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The initial response to injury and disruption of a blood vessel is bleeding. The hemostatic response to this is clot formation to stop hemorrhage. Platelet plug ... . Tumor necrosis factor and interleukin-1 also stimulate fibroblast proliferation, however are produced by macrophages

Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning acute phase protein response to surgical stress? a. Glucocorticoid hormones inhibit this response b. Proteins such as albumin and transferrin which serve in serum transport are generally increased in this response c. Examples of acute phase proteins include fibrinogen and C-reactive protein d. In general, the physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

Description : Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ... physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

Last Answer : Answer: c, d IL-6 is now recognized at the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Glucocorticoid hormones augment ... that generally inhibit the tissue destruction that is associated with the local initiation of inflammation

Cytokines which play an important role in the metabolic response to injury include: a. Tumor necrosis factor—a (TNF) b. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) c. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) d. Interferon-g

Description : Cytokines which play an important role in the metabolic response to injury include: a. Tumor necrosis factor—a (TNF) b. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) c. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) d. Interferon-g

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d TNF or cachetin is considered the primary mediator of the systemic effects of endotoxin, producing anorexia, fever, tachypnea, and tachycardia at low doses and hypotension, ... infected sells. IFN-g has the ability to upregulate the number of TNF receptors on various cell types

Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a major proinflammatory mediator with multiple effects, including regulation of skeletal muscle proteolysis in patients with sepsis or significant injury. C. Platelet-activating factor (PAF) is a major cytokine that results in platelet aggregation, bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability. D. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), despite its short plasma half-life, appears to be a principal mediator in the evolution of sepsis and the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) ... organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Cytokines are soluble peptide molecules that are synthesized and secreted by a number of cell types in response to injury, inflammation, and infection. Cytokines, which ... is thought to play a central role in the stress response, particularly in response to endotoxemia

The mechanism of action of cyclosporine involves (a) Activation of calcineurin (b) Binding to cyclophilin to cause inhibition of a cytoplasmic phosphatase (c) Blockade of interleukin – 2- receptors (d) Inhibition of phospholipase A2 (e) Suppression of bone marrow progenitors

Description : The mechanism of action of cyclosporine involves (a) Activation of calcineurin (b) Binding to cyclophilin to cause inhibition of a cytoplasmic phosphatase (c) Blockade of interleukin – 2- receptors (d) Inhibition of phospholipase A2 (e) Suppression of bone marrow progenitors

Last Answer : Ans: B

Acquired immunity consists of humoral immunity maintained by _____ and _____, and cell-mediated immunity controlled by _____ a. T cells, complement, B cells b. T cells, Interleukin, B cells c. B cells, antibodies, T cells d. B cells, histamine, T cells

Description : Acquired immunity consists of humoral immunity maintained by _____ and _____, and cell-mediated immunity controlled by _____ a. T cells, complement, B cells b. T cells, Interleukin, B cells c. B cells, antibodies, T cells d. B cells, histamine, T cells

Last Answer : c. B cells, antibodies, T cells

Cytotoxic T cells release which 2 toxic proteins as they fight target cells? a. histamine and heparin b. perforin and granzymes c. interleukin and interferon d. lysozymes and cytokines

Description : Cytotoxic T cells release which 2 toxic proteins as they fight target cells? a. histamine and heparin b. perforin and granzymes c. interleukin and interferon d. lysozymes and cytokines

Last Answer : b. perforin and granzymes

To activate a bound helper T lymphocyte, the macrophage produces a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) b. granzymes c. Interferon

Description : To activate a bound helper T lymphocyte, the macrophage produces a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) b. granzymes c. Interferon

Last Answer : a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

Virus infected cells produce a set of cytokine proteins called _____ that "alert" surrounding cells to the viral threat. a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) b. Interferon. c. Toll Like Receptors (TLR) d. Acute Phase Proteins

Description : Virus infected cells produce a set of cytokine proteins called _____ that "alert" surrounding cells to the viral threat. a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) b. Interferon. c. Toll Like Receptors (TLR) d. Acute Phase Proteins

Last Answer : b. Interferon.

Macrophages are professional antigen- presenting cells. The protein molecule through which theypresent antigen in human is A.actin B.interleukin C.HLA D.CD8

Description : Macrophages are professional antigen- presenting cells. The protein molecule through which theypresent antigen in human is A.actin B.interleukin C.HLA D.CD8

Last Answer : D.CD8

The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. c) Retinoids Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Description : The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal ... an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Last Answer : a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim.

Which of the following reactions would result in decreased entropy?

Description : Which of the following reactions would result in decreased entropy?

Last Answer : N2(g) + 3H2(g) -> 2NH3(g) - Apex (Correct answer if you're taking the Unit 6 Exam)

Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of reactions which lead to a variety of cellular injuries. Oxidants are derived from several sources, notably phagocytes. Among the effects of oxygen free radicals are membrane lipid peroxidation, DNA strand breaks, cytoskeletal disassembly and inhibition of glucose metabolism leading to decreased cellular ATP concentrations. (Figure 6-16) 187 Which of the following acute-phase protein levels are increased in human plasma following acute inflammation? a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Description : Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of ... a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The acute-phase response is a series of homeostatic responses of the organism to tissue injury in infection and inflammation. After an inflammatory stimulus occurs, a number ... 30% to 50% of the level before injury. The reason for the decrease in production is poorly understood