The effect of propranolol on heart rate is least marked under the following condition: A. Physical exercise B. Rest C. Anxiety D. Sick sinus syndrome

The effect of propranolol on heart rate is least marked under the following condition: A. Physical exercise B. Rest C. Anxiety D. Sick sinus syndrome
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B. Rest
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The effect of propranolol on heart rate is least marked under the following condition: A. Physical exercise B. Rest C. Anxiety D. Sick sinus syndrome

Description : The effect of propranolol on heart rate is least marked under the following condition: A. Physical exercise B. Rest C. Anxiety D. Sick sinus syndrome

Last Answer : B. Rest

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : C. Atrial fibrillation

The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Last Answer : Ans: A

Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety ... the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both B' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations

The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Description : The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Last Answer : DD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Propranolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with: A. Chronic neurotic disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Short-term stressful situations D. Endogenous depression

Description : Propranolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with: A. Chronic neurotic disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Short-term stressful situations D. Endogenous depression

Last Answer : C. Short-term stressful situations

Propranolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with: A. Chronic neurotic disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Short-term stressful situations D. Endogenous depression

Description : Propranolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with: A. Chronic neurotic disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Short-term stressful situations D. Endogenous depression

Last Answer : C. Short-term stressful situation

A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low. Which of the following lines of action is warranted: A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor B. Continue all medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor

In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an alternative so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

Last Answer : A. Pindolol

In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an alternative so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

Last Answer : A. Pindolol

Sick sinus syndrome?

Description : Sick sinus syndrome?

Last Answer : DefinitionSick sinus syndrome is a collection of heart rhythm disorders that include:Sinus bradycardia -- slow heart rates from the natural pacemaker of the heartTachycardias -- fast heart ratesBradycardia ... slow heart rates when the tachycardia ends.Abnormal heart rhythms are often made worse by

The β3 adrenoceptor differs from the other subtypes of β receptor in that it: A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol B. Is located primarily in the heart C. Regulates blood sugar level D. Is not coupled to G proteins

Description : The β3 adrenoceptor differs from the other subtypes of β receptor in that it: A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol B. Is located primarily in the heart C. Regulates blood sugar level D. Is not coupled to G proteins

Last Answer : A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol

The β 3 adrenoceptor differs from the other subtypes of β receptor in that it: A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol B. Is located primarily in the heart C. Regulates blood sugar level D. Is not coupled to G proteins

Description : The β 3 adrenoceptor differs from the other subtypes of β receptor in that it: A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol B. Is located primarily in the heart C. Regulates blood sugar level D. Is not coupled to G proteins

Last Answer : A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol

Proptosis is present in the following condition except: a. Horner's syndrome b. Orbital cellulitis c. Thyroid ophthalmopathy d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Description : Proptosis is present in the following condition except: a. Horner's syndrome b. Orbital cellulitis c. Thyroid ophthalmopathy d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis  

Last Answer : ANSWER: A 

Megaloblastic anaemia developing under the following condition is due entirely to folate deficiency not associated with vitamin B12 deficiency: A. Malnutrition B. Blind loop syndrome C. Phenytoin therapy D. Pregnancy

Description : Megaloblastic anaemia developing under the following condition is due entirely to folate deficiency not associated with vitamin B12 deficiency: A. Malnutrition B. Blind loop syndrome C. Phenytoin therapy D. Pregnancy

Last Answer : C. Phenytoin therapy

The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : A. Prazosin

The following side effect of typical neuroleptics may respond to propranolol: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Tardive dyskinesia D. Akathisia (p. 397) 30.15 3 0 . 1 5 B 30.16 3 0 . 1 6 D

Description : The following side effect of typical neuroleptics may respond to propranolol: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Tardive dyskinesia D. Akathisia (p. 397) 30.15 3 0 . 1 5 B 30.16 3 0 . 1 6 D

Last Answer : D. Akathisia (p. 397)

Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy C. In patients not responding to carbimazole D. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine

Description : Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy C. In patients not responding to carbimazole D. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine

Last Answer : A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops

Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Last Answer : D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

What is the usual response to digoxin in a patient of atrial fibrillation: A. Restoration of normal sinus rhythm B. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to atrial flutter C. Increase in atrial fibrillation frequency, but decrease in ventricular rate D. Decrease in atrial fibrillation frequency, but increase in ventricular rate

Description : What is the usual response to digoxin in a patient of atrial fibrillation: A. Restoration of normal sinus rhythm B. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to atrial flutter C. Increase in ... decrease in ventricular rate D. Decrease in atrial fibrillation frequency, but increase in ventricular rate

Last Answer : C. Increase in atrial fibrillation frequency, but decrease in ventricular rate

Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo

Description : Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo

Last Answer : D. Propofol

Morphine dependence is characterized by: A. Marked drug seeking behaviour B. Physical dependence without psychic dependence C. Physical as well as psychic dependence D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Morphine dependence is characterized by: A. Marked drug seeking behaviour B. Physical dependence without psychic dependence C. Physical as well as psychic dependence D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Bisphosphonates are indicated in the following condition: A. Organophosphate poisoning B. Dementia C. Steven’s Johnson syndrome D. Osteoporosis

Description : Bisphosphonates are indicated in the following condition: A. Organophosphate poisoning B. Dementia C. Steven’s Johnson syndrome D. Osteoporosis

Last Answer : D. Osteoporosis

Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Description : Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Last Answer : B. Inflammation

Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Description : Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition: A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction B. Inflammation C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Variant angina

Last Answer : B. Inflammation

Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance

Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance

Last Answer : B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes

The following class of gastric antisecretory drug also reduce gastric motility and have primary effect on juice volume, with less marked effect on acid and pepsin content: A. Histamine H2 blockers B. Anticholinergics C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Prostaglandins

Description : The following class of gastric antisecretory drug also reduce gastric motility and have primary effect on juice volume, with less marked effect on acid and pepsin A. Histamine H2 blockers B. Anticholinergics C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Prostaglandins

Last Answer : B. Anticholinergics

Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine

Description : Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine

Last Answer : A. Cimetidine

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect

The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Description : The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Last Answer : A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients

A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Description : A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked ... has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. It produces physical dependence and suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property

Adaptive neurophysiological changes produced by repeated administration of a drug, which result in the appearance of characteristic withdrawal syndrome on discontinuation of the drug is called: A. Drug addiction B. Drug abuse C. Psychological dependence D. Physical dependence

Description : Adaptive neurophysiological changes produced by repeated administration of a drug, which result in the appearance of characteristic withdrawal syndrome on discontinuation of the drug is called: A. Drug addiction B. Drug abuse C. Psychological dependence D. Physical dependence

Last Answer : D. Physical dependence

elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

Description : elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

Last Answer : C. Buspirone

A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Methyldopa

‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem

Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Dipyridamole

Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate

Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate

Last Answer : C. Verapami

Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole

Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole

Last Answer : A. Propranolol

Started within 4-6 hours of acute myocardial infarction, which of the following drug(s) can reduce the area of necrosis and the attendant mortality: A. Propranolol B. Glyceryl trinitrate C. Lignocaine D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Started within 4-6 hours of acute myocardial infarction, which of the following drug(s) can reduce the area of necrosis and the attendant mortality: A. Propranolol B. Glyceryl trinitrate C. Lignocaine D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Last Answer : D. Sildenafil

The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin

Description : The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Adenosine

The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Last Answer : B. Verapami

Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

Description : Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

Last Answer : A. Propranolol

Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol

Description : Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol

Last Answer : C. Cimetidin

The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin

Description : The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin

Last Answer : A. Hydrochlorothiazide

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month

Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Description : Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has additional α1 blocking property