Choose the drug which alters surface receptors on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extracorporeal circulation: A. Dipyridamole B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Heparin

Choose the drug which alters surface receptors on
platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release
reaction and to improve platelet survival in extracorporeal circulation:
A. Dipyridamole
B. Ticlopidine
C. Aspirin
D. Heparin
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Ticlopidine
by

Related questions

Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time

Description : Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time

Last Answer : B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition

The following drug increases cyclic-AMP in platelets and inhibits their aggregation without altering levels of thromboxane A2 or prostacyclin: A. Aspirin B. Sulfinpyrazone C. Dipyridamole D. Abciximab

Description : The following drug increases cyclic-AMP in platelets and inhibits their aggregation without altering levels of thromboxane A2 or prostacyclin: A. Aspirin B. Sulfinpyrazone C. Dipyridamole D. Abciximab

Last Answer : C. Dipyridamole

The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Description : The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation ... active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Last Answer : C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor: A. Vasoconstriction B. Bradycardia C. EDRF release D. Platelet aggregation

Description : The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor: A. Vasoconstriction B. Bradycardia C. EDRF release D. Platelet aggregation

Last Answer : B. Bradycardia

Select the correct statement about ethamsylate: A. It checks capillary bleeding B. It inhibits platelet aggregation C. It is an antifibrinolytic drug D. It is used to fibrose bleeding piles

Description : Select the correct statement about ethamsylate: A. It checks capillary bleeding B. It inhibits platelet aggregation C. It is an antifibrinolytic drug D. It is used to fibrose bleeding piles

Last Answer : ut ethamsylate: A

The action of aspirin that results in its greater efficacy as an antithrombotic (anti-platelet) drug is its ability to (a) Inhibit lipoxygenase as well as cyclooxygenase (b) Selectively inhibit cyclooxygenase I (c) Inhibit leukocyte migration (d) Promote uric acid excretion (e) Acetylate cyclooxygenase

Description : The action of aspirin that results in its greater efficacy as an antithrombotic (anti-platelet) drug is its ability to (a) Inhibit lipoxygenase as well as cyclooxygenase (b) Selectively inhibit ... I (c) Inhibit leukocyte migration (d) Promote uric acid excretion (e) Acetylate cyclooxygenase

Last Answer : Ans: E

Select the drug that may improve myocardial tolerance to ischaemia and reduce anginal attacks without altering heart rate, blood pressure or myocardial O2 consumption: A. Trimetazidine B. Nicorandil C. Dipyridamole D. Nicotinic acid

Description : Select the drug that may improve myocardial tolerance to ischaemia and reduce anginal attacks without altering heart rate, blood pressure or myocardial O2 consumption: A. Trimetazidine B. Nicorandil C. Dipyridamole D. Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : A. Trimetazidine

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

Description : The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Warfarin

Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Description :  Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Last Answer : D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation C. Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets D. Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

Description : A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. ... network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

Last Answer : A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation

The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Last Answer : C. Morphine

The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Last Answer : C. Morphine

The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Description : The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Last Answer : C. It is antigenic

The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Description : The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Last Answer : A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Description : Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Description : he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and ... of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Last Answer : B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombi

The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation

Description : The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation

Last Answer : Ans: B

Thromboxane A2(TXA2): a. is derived from the membrane phospholipid b. its production is decreased by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs c. causes platelet aggregation d. all above

Description : Thromboxane A2(TXA2): a. is derived from the membrane phospholipid b. its production is decreased by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs c. causes platelet aggregation d. all above

Last Answer : all above

The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack: A. Isosorbide dinitrate B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate C. Diltiazem D. Dipyridamole

Description : The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack: A. Isosorbide dinitrate B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate C. Diltiazem D. Dipyridamole

Last Answer : A. Isosorbide dinitrate

Aspirin in low doses produces longlasting inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase (COX) because: A. Platelets contain low quantity of COX B. Platelets cannot synthesize fresh COX molecules C. Platelets bind aspirin with high affinity D. Platelet COX is inducible

Description : Aspirin in low doses produces longlasting inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase (COX) because: A. Platelets contain low quantity of COX B. Platelets cannot synthesize fresh COX molecules C. Platelets bind aspirin with high affinity D. Platelet COX is inducible

Last Answer : B. Platelets cannot synthesize fresh COX molecules

Low doses of aspirin prolong bleeding time by selectively inhibiting synthesis of the following mediator in the platelets: A. Thromboxane A2 B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Platelet activating factor D. Prostacyclin

Description : Low doses of aspirin prolong bleeding time by selectively inhibiting synthesis of the following mediator in the platelets: A. Thromboxane A2 B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Platelet activating factor D. Prostacyclin

Last Answer : A. Thromboxane

Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide

The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins

Description : The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins

Last Answer : C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients

Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine

Description : Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine

Last Answer : A. Sertraline

Histamine H2 blockers attenuate the gastric secretory response to acetylcholine and pentagastrin as well because: A. H2 blockers block gastric mucosal cholinergic and gastrin receptors as well B. H2 blockers inhibit the proton pump in gastric mucosa C. Acetylcholine and gastrin act partly by releasing histamine in gastric mucosa D. Histamine, acetylcholine and gastrin all act through the phospholipase C-IP3:DAG pathway in gastric mucosa

Description : Histamine H2 blockers attenuate the gastric secretory response to acetylcholine and pentagastrin as well because: A. H2 blockers block gastric mucosal cholinergic and gastrin receptors as well B. H2 ... acetylcholine and gastrin all act through the phospholipase C-IP3:DAG pathway in gastric mucosa

Last Answer : C. Acetylcholine and gastrin act partly by releasing histamine in gastric mucosa

Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Description : Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Last Answer : C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin

Medications that can be used early in influenza are ____ and ____ because they inhibit the release of new virions. a. aspirin, decongestants b. Relenza, Tamifluc. Penicillin, ampicillin d. AZT, ribivirin

Description : Medications that can be used early in influenza are ____ and ____ because they inhibit the release of new virions. a. aspirin, decongestants b. Relenza, Tamiflu c. Penicillin, ampicillin d. AZT, ribivirin

Last Answer : b. Relenza, Tamiflu

Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.

Description : Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs ... to cause immunosuppression. d) Antineoplastic agents Antineoplastic agents are known to cause immunosuppression.

Last Answer : a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.

Ticlopidine is recommended for the following except: A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke B. Transient ischaemic attacks C. To prevent occlusion of coronary artery bypass graft D. Intermittent claudication

Description : Ticlopidine is recommended for the following except: A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke B. Transient ischaemic attacks C. To prevent occlusion of coronary artery bypass graft D. Intermittent claudication

Last Answer : A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke

Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors: A. Famotidine B. Loxatidine C. Omeprazole D. Pirenzepine

Description : Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors: A. Famotidine B. Loxatidine C. Omeprazole D. Pirenzepine

Last Answer : C. Omeprazole

Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors: A. Ramipril B. Lovastatin C. Candesartan D. Sumatriptan

Description : Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors: A. Ramipril B. Lovastatin C. Candesartan D. Sumatriptan

Last Answer : C. Candesartan

Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Description : Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Last Answer : C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug

he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect C. It can inhibit insulin release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect

The following are true about chemicals involved in allergic reaction: a. thromboxane -leukocyte activation b. prostaglandin-2 - vasodilatation c. platelet-activating factor - leukocyte activation d. heparin - augments inactivation of prostaglandins

Description : The following are true about chemicals involved in allergic reaction: a. thromboxane -leukocyte activation b. prostaglandin-2 - vasodilatation c. platelet-activating factor - leukocyte activation d. heparin - augments inactivation of prostaglandins

Last Answer : prostaglandin-2 - vasodilatation

The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis C. They bind to 50S ribosomes and interfere with translocation of the growing peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Last Answer : B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

The following diuretic acts on the luminal membrane of distal tubule and collecting ducts to inhibit electrogenic Na+ reabsorption so that K+ excretion is diminished and bicarbonate excretion is enhanced: A. Xipamide B. Isosorbide C. Triamterene D. Spironolactone

Description : The following diuretic acts on the luminal membrane of distal tubule and collecting ducts to inhibit electrogenic Na+ reabsorption so that K+ excretion is diminished and bicarbonate excretion is enhanced: A. Xipamide B. Isosorbide C. Triamterene D. Spironolactone

Last Answer : C. Triamterene

Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Description : Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Last Answer : B. Prosthetic heart valves

The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle: A. Dipyridamole B. Minoxidil C. Diazoxide D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle: A. Dipyridamole B. Minoxidil C. Diazoxide D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem

Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Dipyridamole

Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole

Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole

Last Answer : A. Propranolol

Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Description : Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Last Answer : C. Serotonergic 5-HT4

Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts

Description : Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts

Last Answer : B. Increased peristalsis of gut

Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors

A. It is a clonidine congener used in spasticity due to stroke or spinal injury B. It reduces muscle tone by activating GABAB receptors C. It inhibits release of excitatory amino-acids in spinal interneurones D. It reduces muscle spasms without producing weaknes

Description : A. It is a clonidine congener used in spasticity due to stroke or spinal injury B. It reduces muscle tone by activating GABAB receptors C. It inhibits release of excitatory amino-acids in spinal interneurones D. It reduces muscle spasms without producing weaknes

Last Answer : B. It reduces muscle tone by activating GABAB receptors

In patients of congestive heart failure, β-adrenergic blockers: A. Are absolutely contraindicated B. Can prolong survival C. Can improve haemodynamics after compensation has been restored D. Both B and C are correct

Description : In patients of congestive heart failure, β-adrenergic blockers: A. Are absolutely contraindicated B. Can prolong survival C. Can improve haemodynamics after compensation has been restored D. Both B and C are correct

Last Answer : D. Both B and C are correct