In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended in all type 2 diabetes patients C. Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of
hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin
injections or insulin pumps:
A. Prevents macrovascular disease more
effectively
B. Is recommended in all type 2 diabetes
patients
C. Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions
D. Both A and C are correct
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Both A and C are correct
by

Related questions

Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the progression of diabetic nephropathy. C. Hypertension is associated with sodium retention in diabetes patients. D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be used in all patients with chronic hyperglycemia, regardless of the presence of hypertension. E. Diuretics, as single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Description : Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the ... single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of the answers listed are correct. By damaging endothelial cells, hypertension worsens macrovascular disease in all patients but especially in diabetics. Hypertension ... is not indicated because the chronic state of dehydration in such patients may become worse

Intensive insulin therapy: A. Prevents the aggressive development of atherosclerosis in diabetic patients. B. Is not associated with unawareness of hypoglycemia. C. Improves peripheral neuropathy. D. Improves established retinopathy and nephropathy. E. Is indicated in all patients with non–insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM).

Description : Intensive insulin therapy: A. Prevents the aggressive development of atherosclerosis in diabetic patients. B. Is not associated with unawareness of hypoglycemia. C. Improves peripheral neuropathy. D. ... . E. Is indicated in all patients with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM).

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Intensive insulin therapy is indicated in patients with IDDM who can actively participate in their own management and the attainment of the goals set for ... or prevents progression of these complications; however, better glucose control may improve peripheral neuropathy

Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics

Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Description : Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Description : Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The present status of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus is: A. They are the first choice drug in all cases B. They should be prescribed only if the patient refuses insulin injections C. They are used only in type I diabetes mellitus D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Description : The present status of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus is: A. They are the first choice drug in all cases B. They should be prescribed only if the patient refuses insulin injections C. ... I diabetes mellitus D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Last Answer : D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers blood glucose in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus

Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin ? -Biology-10

Description : Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin ? -Biology-10

Last Answer : Insulin hormone regulates blood sugar levels. If this is not secreted in proper amounts, the sugar level in the blood rises. This causes many harmful effects. To treat harmful effects of increased level of blood sugar, the diabetic patients are treated by giving injections of insulin

Which of the following is not a specific indication for the more expensive monocomponent/human insulins: A. Insulin resistance B. Pregnant diabetic C. Sulfonylurea maintained diabetic posted for surgery D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not a specific indication for the more expensive monocomponent/human insulins: A. Insulin resistance B. Pregnant diabetic C. Sulfonylurea maintained diabetic posted for surgery D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

Description : The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

Last Answer : B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day

Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Description : Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Description : A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients

Which of the following statements is NOT true about diabetes mellitus? A) Type II diabetes is much more common than type I. B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II diabetes. C) Type I diabetes occurs as a result of destruction of the insulin-producing cells. D) One method of treating type II diabetes is exercise and a low-fat, low-sugar diet. E) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the urine.

Description : Which of the following statements is NOT true about diabetes mellitus? A) Type II diabetes is much more common than type I. B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II ... -sugar diet. E) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the urine.

Last Answer : B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II diabetes.

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination is used as clinical curative but is not recommended for prophylaxis of malaria because of: A. Risk of megaloblastic anaemia due to pyrimethamine B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine C. Need for daily administration of the d

Description : Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination is used as clinical curative but is not recommended for prophylaxis of malaria because of: A. Risk of megaloblastic anaemia due to pyrimethamine B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine C. Need for daily administration of the d

Last Answer : B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine

The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Description : The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Last Answer : A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients

Regular low-to-moderate alcohol consumption is associated with: A. Lower incidence of coronary artery disease B. Myocardial depression C. Physical dependence D. Wernicke's encephalopathy

Description : Regular low-to-moderate alcohol consumption is associated with: A. Lower incidence of coronary artery disease B. Myocardial depression C. Physical dependence D. Wernicke's encephalopathy

Last Answer : A. Lower incidence of coronary artery disease

Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death B. Reduce the incidence of fatal as well as nonfatal myocardial infarction or stroke C. Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C’

Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C

Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain of the fluid, which will likely demonstrate multiple bacteria including predominantly gram-positive rods b. A CT scan is indicated in a stable patient to define the extent of the disease c. Broad spectrum antibiotics followed with prompt extensive debridement is indicated d. A safe guideline is to resect infected necrotic tissue so that a several centimeter margin of grossly normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Description : In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Last Answer : A. Prednisolone

What is true of nicotinic acid as well as nicotinamide: A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity B. Both cause cutaneous vasodilatation C. Both lower plasma triglyceride and VLDL levels D. Both cause hyperglycaemia after prolonged medication

Description : What is true of nicotinic acid as well as nicotinamide: A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity B. Both cause cutaneous vasodilatation C. Both lower plasma triglyceride and VLDL levels D. Both cause hyperglycaemia after prolonged medication

Last Answer : A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

What is true of acid control therapy with H2 blockers: A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers B. It checks bleeding in case of bleeding peptic ulcer C. It prevents gastroesophageal reflux D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : What is true of acid control therapy with H2 blockers: A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers B. It checks bleeding in case of bleeding peptic ulcer C. It prevents gastroesophageal reflux D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers

Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Description : Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Description : Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Last Answer : c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine 

Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Vancomycin D. Clindamycin

Description : Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Vancomycin D. Clindamycin

Last Answer : D. Clindamycin

Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia

The most prominent and dose related side effect of salbutamol is: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Muscle tremor C. Hyperglycaemia D. Central nervous system stimulation

Description : The most prominent and dose related side effect of salbutamol is: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Muscle tremor C. Hyperglycaemia D. Central nervous system stimulation

Last Answer : B. Muscle tremor

Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis

Description :  Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis

Last Answer : B. Hypoglycaemia

Which of the following is seen at low (analgesic) doses of aspirin: A. Respiratory stimulation B. Increased occult blood loss in stools C. Increased cardiac output D. Hyperglycaemia

Description :  Which of the following is seen at low (analgesic) doses of aspirin: A. Respiratory stimulation B. Increased occult blood loss in stools C. Increased cardiac output D. Hyperglycaemia

Last Answer : B. Increased occult blood loss in stools

The thiazolidinediones are mainly used as: A. Sole drug in type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Sole drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Addon drug to insulin in type 1 diabetes mellitus (p. 250) 18.33 1 8 . 3 3 C 18.34 1 8 . 3 4 B 18.35 1 8 . 3 5 D 18.36 1 8 . 3 6 C

Description : The thiazolidinediones are mainly used as: A. Sole drug in type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Sole drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Addon drug to insulin in type 1 ... 18.34 1 8 . 3 4 B 18.35 1 8 . 3 5 D 18.36 1 8 . 3 6 C

Last Answer : C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus

Which of the following is not a sulfonylurea but acts by analogous mechanism to bring about quick and brief insulin release that is useful for normalizing meal time glycaemic excursions in type 2 diabetes mellitus: A. Glimepiride B. Miglitol C. Repaglinide D. Rosiglitazone

Description : Which of the following is not a sulfonylurea but acts by analogous mechanism to bring about quick and brief insulin release that is useful for normalizing meal time glycaemic excursions in type 2 diabetes mellitus: A. Glimepiride B. Miglitol C. Repaglinide D. Rosiglitazone

Last Answer : C. Repaglinide

The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril

Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril

Last Answer : A. Nifedipine

component of the management of moderately severe diabetic ketoacidosis: A. Insulin B. Intravenous fluids C. Potassium chloride D. Sodium bicarbonate

Description : component of the management of moderately severe diabetic ketoacidosis: A. Insulin B. Intravenous fluids C. Potassium chloride D. Sodium bicarbonate

Last Answer : D. Sodium bicarbonate

The insulin preparation of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis is: A. Regular insulin B. Lente insulin C. Isophane insulin D. A 30:70 mixture of plain and isophane insulin

Description : The insulin preparation of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis is: A. Regular insulin B. Lente insulin C. Isophane insulin D. A 30:70 mixture of plain and isophane insulin

Last Answer : A. Regular insulin

Which of the following measures is not an essential component of the management of moderately severe diabetic ketoacidosis: A. Insulin B. Intravenous fluids C. Potassium chloride D. Sodium bicarbonate

Description : Which of the following measures is not an essential component of the management of moderately severe diabetic ketoacidosis: A. Insulin B. Intravenous fluids C. Potassium chloride D. Sodium bicarbonate

Last Answer : . Sodium bicarbonate

The insulin preparation of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis is: A. Regular insulin B. Lente insulin C. Isophane insulin D. A 30:70 mixture of plain and isophane insulin

Description : The insulin preparation of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis is: A. Regular insulin B. Lente insulin C. Isophane insulin D. A 30:70 mixture of plain and isophane insulin

Last Answer : A. Regular insulin

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Description : Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Last Answer : C. Elderly obese hypertensives

Choose the correct statement about lovastatin: A. It markedly lowers plasma triglyceride with little effect on cholesterol level B. It is used as an adjuvant to gemfibrozil for type III hyperlipoproteinemia C. It is not effective in diabetes associated hypercholesterolemia D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Description : Choose the correct statement about lovastatin: A. It markedly lowers plasma triglyceride with little effect on cholesterol level B. It is used as an adjuvant to gemfibrozil for type III ... hypercholesterolemia D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Last Answer : D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patients C. Adult contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

Description : Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose ... islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 2 diabetes do not demonstrate islet cell antibodies.

Last Answer : a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Description : The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions

he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Description : he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions

The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg 3 times a day × 7 days with pyrimethamine 75 mg + sulfadoxine 1500 mg on first day C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Description : The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg ... 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days