Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following effects except: A. Flushing B. Tachycardia C. Diuresis D. Rise in body temperature

Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following
effects except:
A. Flushing
B. Tachycardia
C. Diuresis
D. Rise in body temperature
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Rise in body temperature
by

Related questions

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Consumption of alcoholic beverages in moderate amounts can be allowed for the following category of subjects: A. Epileptics B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction C. Gastroesophageal reflux patients D. Pregnant women

Description : Consumption of alcoholic beverages in moderate amounts can be allowed for the following category of subjects: A. Epileptics B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction C. Gastroesophageal reflux patients D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction

Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Description : Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Last Answer : C. Esmolo

The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil

Description : The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil

Last Answer : B. Nifedipine

Imipramine produces the following actions except: A. Euphoria B. Dryness of mouth C. Tachycardia D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Description : Imipramine produces the following actions except: A. Euphoria B. Dryness of mouth C. Tachycardia D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Last Answer : A. Euphoria

Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema

Description : Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema

Last Answer : C. Hypoglycaemia

Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence

Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence

Actions of progesterone include the following except: A. Rise in body temperature B. Endometrial proliferation C. Proliferation of acini in mammary gland D. Suppression of cell mediated immunity

Description : Actions of progesterone include the following except: A. Rise in body temperature B. Endometrial proliferation C. Proliferation of acini in mammary gland D. Suppression of cell mediated immunity

Last Answer : B. Endometrial proliferatio

The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action

Description : The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action

Last Answer : D. Good antipruritic action

Regular low-to-moderate alcohol consumption is associated with: A. Lower incidence of coronary artery disease B. Myocardial depression C. Physical dependence D. Wernicke's encephalopathy

Description : Regular low-to-moderate alcohol consumption is associated with: A. Lower incidence of coronary artery disease B. Myocardial depression C. Physical dependence D. Wernicke's encephalopathy

Last Answer : A. Lower incidence of coronary artery disease

Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Description : Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished and ascitis again appeared. Select the measure to reinduce diuresis: A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose to 100 mg twice daily B. Add acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily

Which of the following has a ‘self limiting diuretic’ (action of the drug itself causing changes which limit further diuresis) action: A. Indapamide B. Spironolactone C. Xipamide D. Acetazolamide

Description : Which of the following has a ‘self limiting diuretic’ (action of the drug itself causing changes which limit further diuresis) action: A. Indapamide B. Spironolactone C. Xipamide D. Acetazolamide

Last Answer : D. Acetazolamide

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Description : Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Last Answer : C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload.

Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : D. Furosemide

ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Description : ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis

Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin therapy prevents granulomatous lesions and cardiac complications of acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Description : Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin ... acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid

A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Description : A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked ... has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: C

Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in maximal exercise, can produce all of the following responses except (a) Bronchial relaxation (b) Decreases intestinal motility (c) Increased renal blood flow (d) Mydriasis (e) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)

Description : Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in maximal exercise, can produce all of the following responses except (a) Bronchial relaxation (b) Decreases intestinal motility (c) Increased renal blood flow (d) Mydriasis (e) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)

Last Answer : Ans: C

Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure

Description : Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure

Last Answer : Ans: C

A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He is agitated and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct concerning his diagnosis and management? a. Myocardial ischemia secondary to preexisting coronary artery disease is most likely the underlying cause of this problem b. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with a Swan-Gantz catheter will demonstrate a low cardiac output, a high systemic vascular resistance, and elevated cardiac filling pressures c. The use of morphine sulphate and nitrates should be part of the initial management d. The primary pharmacologic treatment involves the use of moderate doses of inotropic ag

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Intrinsic cardiogenic shock results from failure of the heart as an effective pump. Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of myocardial ... hemodynamic monitoring. Infusion of afterload-reducing agents can be administered in conjunction with inotropic support

Which of the following physical findings are associated with the various classes of hemorrhagic shock? a. Mild shock (< 20% blood volume): Pallor, cool extremities, diminished capillary refill and diaphoresis b. Moderate shock (20%–40% blood volume): All of the above plus tachycardia and hypotension c. Severe shock (> 40% blood volume): Systemic hypotension, changes in mental status, tachycardia, oliguria d. All of the above

Description : Which of the following physical findings are associated with the various classes of hemorrhagic shock? a. Mild shock (< 20% blood volume): Pallor, cool extremities, diminished capillary refill and ... ): Systemic hypotension, changes in mental status, tachycardia, oliguria d. All of the above

Last Answer : Answer: a, c PHYSICAL FINDINGS IN HEMORRHAGIC SHOCK* Moderate Mild (40% Blood Volume) Blood Volume) Blood Volume) Pallor Pallor Pallor Cool extremities Cool extremities Cool extremities ... hypotension Mental status changes * Alcohol or drug intoxication may alter physical findings

Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects

Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic

Used as a laxative, liquid paraffin has the following drawbacks except: A. It interferes with absorption of fat soluble vitamins B. It is unpleasant to swallow C. It causes griping D. It can produce foreign body granulomas

Description : Used as a laxative, liquid paraffin has the following drawbacks except: A. It interferes with absorption of fat soluble vitamins B. It is unpleasant to swallow C. It causes griping D. It can produce foreign body granulomas

Last Answer : C. It causes griping

Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia. b) Hypotension Hypotension is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia. c) Elevated temperature The rise in temperature is actually a late sign that develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Description : Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant ... develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Last Answer : a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible for attracting and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Description : Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible ... and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Last Answer : A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction

Metabolic actions of estrogens tend to cause the following except: A. Anabolism B. Impaired glucose tolerance C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol D. Salt and water retention

Description : Metabolic actions of estrogens tend to cause the following except: A. Anabolism B. Impaired glucose tolerance C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol D. Salt and water retention

Last Answer : C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol

Adverse consequences of excess mineralocorticoid action include the following except: A. Na+ and water retention B. Acidosis C. Aggravation of CHF associated myocardial fibrosis D. Rise in blood pressure

Description : Adverse consequences of excess mineralocorticoid action include the following except: A. Na+ and water retention B. Acidosis C. Aggravation of CHF associated myocardial fibrosis D. Rise in blood pressure

Last Answer : B. Acidosis

Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar leve

Description : Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar leve

Last Answer : C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level

17.5 Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar level

Description : 17.5 Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar level

Last Answer : D. Rise in blood sugar level

The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia

Description : The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia

Last Answer : C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia

The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin

Description : The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Adenosine

The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Last Answer : B. Verapami

ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Description : ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Last Answer : D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : C. Atrial fibrillation

Digoxin is contraindicated in: A. Angina pectoris patients B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Hypertensive patients D. Complete heart-block

Description : Digoxin is contraindicated in: A. Angina pectoris patients B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Hypertensive patients D. Complete heart-block

Last Answer : B. Ventricular tachycardia

Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy C. Ventricular tachycardia in a child who has accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min ... accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy

The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia

Description : The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia

Last Answer : B. Tardive dyskinesia

Hypnotic dose of diazepam produces the following action: A. Tachycardia B. Constipation C. Hyperalgesia D. Decreased nocturnal gastric secretion

Description : Hypnotic dose of diazepam produces the following action: A. Tachycardia B. Constipation C. Hyperalgesia D. Decreased nocturnal gastric secretion

Last Answer : D. Decreased nocturnal gastric secretion

Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Description : Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Last Answer : D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Description : Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Last Answer : D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Description : Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Drug metabolism can be induced by the following factors except: A. Cigarette smoking B. Acute alcohol ingestion C. Exposure to insecticides D. Consumption charcoal broiled meat

Description : Drug metabolism can be induced by the following factors except: A. Cigarette smoking B. Acute alcohol ingestion C. Exposure to insecticides D. Consumption charcoal broiled meat

Last Answer : B. Acute ******* ingestion