Description : The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance
Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions
Description : he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance
Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels
Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics
Description : Which of the following is true of counterregulatory symptoms of insulin hypoglycaemia: A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptoms B. They are accentuated after long-term insulin treatment C. They result from parasympathetic activation D. They manifest as hunger and fatigue
Last Answer : A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptom
Description : The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema
Last Answer : A. Serum sickness
Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then: A. He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
Last Answer : D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
Description : Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals
Last Answer : B. Fall in BP in the long term
Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Loose motions C. Constipation D. Urticaria
Last Answer : B. Loose motions
Description : Sodium cromoglycate has a role in the treatment of the following conditions except: A. Chronic bronchial asthma B. Chronic urticaria C. Chronic allergic rhinitis D. Chronic allergic conjunctivitis
Last Answer : B. Chronic urticaria
Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia
Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia
Description : Choose the most suitable antihypertensive drug for a 45-year-old male company executive who has a travelling job. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, and he is a diabetic ... → rebound hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide: May worsen diabetes; more likely to produce weakness, fatigue and impotenc
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema
Last Answer : C. Hypoglycaemia
Description : Which of the following is a neuroglucopenic symptom of hypoglycaemia: A. Sweating B. Palpitation C. Tremor D. Abnormal behaviour
Last Answer : D. Type 2 diabetes patients not controlled by a biguanide drug
Description : Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis
Last Answer : B. Hypoglycaemia
Description : Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine
Last Answer : B. Propranolol
Description : Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics
Last Answer : c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine
Description : Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the treatment of tuberculosis: A. Respiratory syndrome B. Cutaneous syndrome C. Flu syndrome D. Abdominal syndrome
Last Answer : A. Respiratory syndrome
Description : Hepatitis with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin: A. Erythromycin base B. Erythromycin stearate C. Erythromycin estolate D. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
Last Answer : C. Erythromycin estolate
Description : Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction: A. Muscle dystonia caused by triflupromazine B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone C. Precipitation of asthma by morphine D. Gum hyperplasia caused by phenytoin
Last Answer : B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone
Description : Urticaria means: A. allergic reaction of the skin B. thickened skin C. dead tissue
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then (a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ( ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely (d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine
Last Answer : C. Primaquine
Description : The following is true of mefloquine: A. P. falciparum does not develop resistance to mefloquine B. Concurrent use of β blockers with mefloquine is contraindicated C. Neuropsychiatric reactions are the most important adverse effects of mefloquine D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Neuropsychiatric reactions are the most important adverse effects of mefloquine
Description : Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P.falciparum as well as P. vivax: A. Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Artesunate D. Proguanil
Last Answer : B. Mefloquine
Description : An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh
Last Answer : B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously
Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above
Description : Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities
Last Answer : C. Kidney damage
Description : The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs
Last Answer : A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs
Description : Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
Last Answer : D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system
Last Answer : B. Kidney
Description : A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid
Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients
Description : Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The rare but characteristic adverse effect of HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is: A. Onycolysis B. Myopathy C. Alopecia D. Oculomucocutaneous syndrome
Last Answer : B. Myopathy
Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Description : The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic drug therapy which does not respond to central anticholinergics is: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Rabbit syndrome D. Tardive dyskinesia
Last Answer : D. Tardive dyskinesia
Description : The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia
Last Answer : B. Tardive dyskinesia
Description : Which of the following adverse effects of neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds: A. Sedation B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances C. Postural hypotension D. Lowering of seizure threshold
Last Answer : B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances
Description : The following adverse effect of levodopa is not minimised by combining it with carbidopa: A. Involuntary movements B. Nausea and vomiting C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. ‘On-off ’ effect
Last Answer : A. Involuntary movements
Description : Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements
Last Answer : D. Abnormal movements
Description : Sodium valproate should be used with caution in young children because they are particularly at risk of developing the following adverse effect: A. Hepatitis B. Loss of hair C. Anorexia D. Tremor
Last Answer : A. Hepatitis
Description : The following adverse effect(s) of phenytoin is/are related to high plasma drug concentration: A. Ataxia B. Hirsutism C. Gum hyperplasia D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Ataxia
Description : Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty
Last Answer : C. Cholestatic jaundice
Description : The following androgen does not produce cholestatic jaundice as an adverse effect: A. Testosterone propionate B. Methyl testosterone C. Fluoxymesterone D. Stanozolo
Last Answer : A. Testosterone propionate
Description : The following adverse effect of corticosteroids is mainly due to their mineralocorticoid action: A. Osteoporosis B. Rise in blood pressure C. ‘Moon face’ D. Increased susceptibility to infection
Last Answer : B. Rise in blood pressure
Description : Adverse consequences of excess mineralocorticoid action include the following except: A. Na+ and water retention B. Acidosis C. Aggravation of CHF associated myocardial fibrosis D. Rise in blood pressure
Last Answer : B. Acidosis
Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
Last Answer : D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound