Choose the correct statement(s) about dofetilide: A. It is a pure class III antiarrhythmic B. It has no adrenergic/cholinergic receptor blocking property C. It selectively depresses the rapid component of delayed rectifier K+ current in myocardial fibres D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement(s) about dofetilide:
A. It is a pure class III antiarrhythmic
B. It has no adrenergic/cholinergic receptor
blocking property
C. It selectively depresses the rapid component
of delayed rectifier K+ current in myocardial
fibres
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

Description : The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

Last Answer : A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker

The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

Which of the following is a long acting neuroleptic having specific antidopaminergic action, but little adrenergic or cholinergic blocking activity: A. Triflupromazine B. Thioridazine C. Clozapine D. Pimozide

Description : Which of the following is a long acting neuroleptic having specific antidopaminergic action, but little adrenergic or cholinergic blocking activity: A. Triflupromazine B. Thioridazine C. Clozapine D. Pimozide

Last Answer : D. Pimozide

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

Description : Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

Last Answer : A. Propranolol

The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally blocks α1 and α2 adrenoceptors C. It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Description : The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally ... It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade

The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally blocks α1 and α2 adrenoceptors C. It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Description : The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally ... It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

The positive inotropic action of digoxin takes several hours to develop because: A. Binding of digoxin to Na+K+ATPase is slow B. After Na+K+ATPase inhibition by digoxin, Ca2+ loading of myocardial fibres occurs progressively with each contraction C. Digoxin inhibits Na+K+ATPase through modification of gene function which takes time D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : The positive inotropic action of digoxin takes several hours to develop because: A. Binding of digoxin to Na+K+ATPase is slow B. After Na+K+ATPase inhibition by digoxin, Ca2+ loading of myocardial ... +ATPase through modification of gene function which takes time D. Both A' and B' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron

Description : Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron

Last Answer : C. Domperidone

The α2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Description : The α2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Last Answer : B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location

The α 2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Description : The α 2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Last Answer : B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location

Which of the following is a G protein coupled receptor: A. Muscarinic cholinergic receptor B. Nicotinic cholinergic receptor C. Glucocorticoid receptor D. Insulin receptor

Description : Which of the following is a G protein coupled receptor: A. Muscarinic cholinergic receptor B. Nicotinic cholinergic receptor C. Glucocorticoid receptor D. Insulin receptor

Last Answer : A. Muscarinic cholinergic receptor

The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

Description : The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

Last Answer : A. Na+ channel blockade

Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Last Answer : C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation

The dopamine D2 receptor has the following feature: A. It is excitatory in nature B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase C. It is selectively blocked by bromocriptine D. It is not blocked by metoclopramide

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Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Description : Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Last Answer : D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The following drug claimed to have a therapeutic effect in senile dementia has α adrenergic blocking activity: A. Piracetam B. Pyritinol C. Codergocrine D. Methylphenidate

Description : The following drug claimed to have a therapeutic effect in senile dementia has α adrenergic blocking activity: A. Piracetam B. Pyritinol C. Codergocrine D. Methylphenidate

Last Answer : C. Codergocrine

Labetalol has: A. More potent β adrenergic blocking than α blocking activity B. More potent α adrenergic blocking than β blocking activity C. Equal α and β adrenergic blocking activity D. β1 agonistic activity in addition to α and β adrenergic blockade

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Last Answer : A. More potent β adrenergic blocking than α blocking activity

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

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Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Ergotamine relieves migraine by: A. Blocking vascular α adrenergic receptors B. Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors C. Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

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Last Answer : D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

Digitalis induced increase in refractory period of myocardial fibres is most consistent and pronounced in the: A. Atria B. Ventricles C. A-V node D. Purkinje fibres

Description : Digitalis induced increase in refractory period of myocardial fibres is most consistent and pronounced in the: A. Atria B. Ventricles C. A-V node D. Purkinje fibres

Last Answer : C. A-V node

Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

hat is/are the consequence(s) of myocardial Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition by digoxin: A. Increased intracellular Na+ ion concentration B. Increased cytosolic Ca2+ ion concentration C. Increased intracellular K+ ion concentration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : hat is/are the consequence(s) of myocardial Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition by digoxin: A. Increased intracellular Na+ ion concentration B. Increased cytosolic Ca2+ ion concentration C. Increased intracellular K+ ion concentration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Choose the correct statement from the following about a1 – adrenergic receptor agonists (a) Norepinephrine > isoproterenol > epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine < epinephrine > isoproterenol (c) Epinephrine = norepinephrine >> isoproterenol (d) Epinephrine > isoproterenol > norepinephrine

Description : Choose the correct statement from the following about a1 – adrenergic receptor agonists (a) Norepinephrine > isoproterenol > epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine < epinephrine > isoproterenol (c) Epinephrine = norepinephrine >> isoproterenol (d) Epinephrine > isoproterenol > norepinephrine

Last Answer : Ans: C

Cisapride enhances gastrointestinal motility by: A. Activating serotonin 5-HT4 receptor B. Activating muscarinic M3 receptor C. Blocking dopamine D2 receptor D. All of the above

Description : Cisapride enhances gastrointestinal motility by: A. Activating serotonin 5-HT4 receptor B. Activating muscarinic M3 receptor C. Blocking dopamine D2 receptor D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Activating serotonin 5-HT4 receptor

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity

Description : Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity

Last Answer : A. Very long duration of action

e primary mechanism by which general anaesthetics produce their action is: A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones B. Blocking voltage sensitive Na+ channels in neuronal membrane C. Depressing metabolic activity of cerebral neurones D. Blocking production of high energy phosphates in the brain

Description : e primary mechanism by which general anaesthetics produce their action is: A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones B. Blocking voltage sensitive Na+ channels in neuronal ... activity of cerebral neurones D. Blocking production of high energy phosphates in the brain

Last Answer : A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Description : The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Last Answer : D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Description : Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Last Answer : C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug

Choose the correct statement(s) about metronidazole: A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess B. It affords the most rapid symptom relief in amoebic dysentery C. It is the most effective drug in eradicating amoebic cysts from the colon D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about metronidazole: A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess B. It affords the most rapid symptom relief in amoebic dysentery C. It is the most effective drug in eradicating amoebic cysts from the colon D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess

Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors

Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Description : Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Last Answer : B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomitin

Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Description : Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Last Answer : C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach

Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors: A. Famotidine B. Loxatidine C. Omeprazole D. Pirenzepine

Description : Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors: A. Famotidine B. Loxatidine C. Omeprazole D. Pirenzepine

Last Answer : C. Omeprazole

Losartan differs from enalapril in the following respect: A. It does not potentiate bradykinin B. It depresses cardiovascular reflexes C. It impairs carbohydrate tolerance D. It does not have fetopathic potential

Description : Losartan differs from enalapril in the following respect: A. It does not potentiate bradykinin B. It depresses cardiovascular reflexes C. It impairs carbohydrate tolerance D. It does not have fetopathic potential

Last Answer : A. It does not potentiate bradykini

The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

Description : The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

Last Answer : B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels

Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Last Answer : B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors: A. Ramipril B. Lovastatin C. Candesartan D. Sumatriptan

Description : Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors: A. Ramipril B. Lovastatin C. Candesartan D. Sumatriptan

Last Answer : C. Candesartan