Description : The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression
Last Answer : B. Poor analgesia
Description : Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use of the following anaesthetic: A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone sodium C. Halothane D. Ether
Last Answer : D. Ether
Description : The following drug is used to reverse the CNS depression produced by diazepam: A. Dexamphetamine B. Doxapram C. Physostigmine D. Flumazenil
Last Answer : D. Flumazenil
Description : Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine
Last Answer : D. Ketamine
Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines
Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines
Description : Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam
Last Answer : C. Ketamine
Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level
Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened
Description : The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Thiopentone sodium
Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action
Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use
Description : At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination
Last Answer : B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution
Description : Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether
Last Answer : B. Halothane
Description : Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the following except: A. Olanzapine B. Diazepam C. Sodium valproate D. Lamotrigine
Last Answer : B. Diazepam
Description : The preferred drug for status epilepticus is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone D. Rectal diazepam
Last Answer : A. Intravenous diazepam
Description : The preferred drug for suppressing febrile convulsions is: A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone B. Intravenous phenytoin C. Rectal diazepam D. Oral sodium valproate
Last Answer : C. Rectal diazepam
Description : The constellation of side effects consisting of thirst, polyuria, looseness of stools and fine tremors is characteristically associated with the following psychotropic drug: A. Amitriptyline B. Lithium carbonate C. Lorazepam D. Buspirone
Last Answer : B. Lithium carbonate
Description : The barbiturate having higher anticonvulsant: sedative activity ratio is: A. Pentobarbitone B. Phenobarbitone C. Butabarbitone D. Thiopentone
Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone
Description : In a comatose patient suspected of poisoning, which of the following findings would be against the drug being morphine: A. Mydriasis B. Marked respiratory depression C. Cyanosis D. Fall in blood pressure
Last Answer : A. Mydriasis
Description : Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except A. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline) B. After iv bolus, rapidly ... C) Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements D) Has good analgesic ...
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine
Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects
Description : The effect of propranolol on heart rate is least marked under the following condition: A. Physical exercise B. Rest C. Anxiety D. Sick sinus syndrome
Last Answer : B. Rest
Description : 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues
Last Answer : B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration
Description : Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of: A. Continuous use of agonists B. Continuous use of antagonists C. Chronic use of CNS depressants D. Denervation
Last Answer : A. Continuous use of agonists
Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes
Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia
Description : Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect
Last Answer : C. It does not have antiandrogenic action
Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost
Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action
Description : elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide
Last Answer : C. Buspirone
Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. Levodopa
Description : Which of the following is not a CNS depressant but increases the tendency to fall asleep at night: A. Pyridoxine B. Diphenhydramine C. Melatonin D. Ethanol
Last Answer : C. Melatonin
Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects
Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic
Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity
Last Answer : A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses
Description : Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Diabetic and other types of neuropathic pain often responds to: A. Chlorpromazine B. Diazepam C. Imipramine D. Lithium
Last Answer : C. Imipramine
Description : The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc
Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action
Description : Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam
Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine
Description : The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone
Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever
Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever
Description : Diazepam is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy B. Tetanus C. Febrile convulsions D. Cardiac catheterization
Last Answer : A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy
Description : Select the drug that antagonises diazepam action noncompetitively: A. Adenosine B. Flumazenil C. Bicuculline D. Valproic acid
Last Answer : C. Bicuculline
Description : Hypnotic dose of diazepam produces the following action: A. Tachycardia B. Constipation C. Hyperalgesia D. Decreased nocturnal gastric secretion
Last Answer : D. Decreased nocturnal gastric secretion
Description : Diazepam is used as a muscle relaxant for: A. Deep intra-abdominal operation B. Tracheal intubation C. Tetanus D. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
Last Answer : C. Tetanus
Description : The drug used for controlling tetany is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intramuscular vitamin D C. Intravenous calcium gluconate D. Intravenous calcitonin
Last Answer : C. Intravenous calcium gluconate
Description : Which of the following drugs exhibits ‘therapeutic window’ phenomenon: A. Captopril B. Furosemide C. Diazepam D. Imipramine
Last Answer : D. Imipramine
Description : Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly suitable for outpatient surgery because of quick recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic psychomotor impairment: A. Ether B. Halothane C. Enflurane D. Desflurane
Last Answer : D. Desflurane
Description : The general anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is: A. Halothane B. Enflurane C. Ether D. Nitrous oxide
Last Answer : A. Halothane
Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating
Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action
Description : Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine
Last Answer : A. It is nonexplosive
Description : Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching
Last Answer : C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics
Description : The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action: A. Ether B. Nitrous oxide C. Halothane D. Isoflurane
Last Answer : B. Nitrous oxide