Description : The following is a tetracyclic antidepressant that has additional dopamine blocking and neuroleptic properties, as well as greater propensity to cause seizures in overdose: A. Amoxapine B. Doxepin C. Dothiepin D. Trazodone
Last Answer : A. Amoxapine
Description : The following antidepressant increases rather than inhibits 5-HT uptake into neurones: A. Clomipramine B. Fluoxetine C. Tianeptine D. Trazodone
Last Answer : C. Tianeptine
Description : Low doses of aspirin prolong bleeding time by selectively inhibiting synthesis of the following mediator in the platelets: A. Thromboxane A2 B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Platelet activating factor D. Prostacyclin
Last Answer : A. Thromboxane
Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone
Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline
Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Description : Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron
Last Answer : C. Domperidone
Description : Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors: A. Ramipril B. Lovastatin C. Candesartan D. Sumatriptan
Last Answer : C. Candesartan
Description : Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of ... (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.
Last Answer : a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins.
Description : Tachyphylaxis to many actions on repeated injection is a feature of the following autacoid: A. Histamine B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Bradykinin D. Prostaglandin E2
Last Answer : B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine
Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil
Last Answer : D. Sildenafil
Description : Select the psychotropic drug having a narrow safety margin: A. Chlorpromazine B. Buspirone C. Lithium carbonate D. Fluoxetine
Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate
Description : Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine
Last Answer : A. Sertraline
Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy
Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property
Description : Adaptive changes in brain monoamine turnover due to blockade of noradrenaline/5-HT reuptake is credited with the following effect: A. Antipsychotic B. Antianxiety C. Antiparkinsonian D. Antidepressant
Last Answer : D. Antidepressant
Description : The following drug of abuse is a hallucinogen: A. Cocaine B. Cannabis C. Heroin D. Methaqualone (p. 403) 31.1 Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor: A. Selegiline
Last Answer : B. Cannabis
Description : The following drug/drugs should not be used to treat tricyclic antidepressant drug poisoning: A. Quinidine B. Digoxin C. Atropine D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Description : additional mild antidepressant property: A. Chlordiazepoxide B. Oxazepam C. Alprazolam D. Lorazepa
Last Answer : C. Alprazolam
Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage
Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity
Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity
Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical
Description : Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen: A. Urokinase B. Streptokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C
Last Answer : C. Alteplase
Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct
Description : Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): A. Intrinsic pathway B. Extrinsic pathway C. Common pathway D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Last Answer : A. Intrinsic pathway
Description : Organic nitrates have predominantly venodilator action because: A. They are selectively concentrated in veins B. Veins express larger quantities of enzymes that generate nitric oxide from nitrates C. Venous smooth muscle has greater capacity to relax D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : B. Veins express larger quantities of enzymes that generate nitric oxide from nitrates
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about dofetilide: A. It is a pure class III antiarrhythmic B. It has no adrenergic/cholinergic receptor blocking property C. It selectively depresses the rapid component of delayed rectifier K+ current in myocardial fibres D. All of the above
Description : The dopamine D2 receptor has the following feature: A. It is excitatory in nature B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase C. It is selectively blocked by bromocriptine D. It is not blocked by metoclopramide
Last Answer : B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase
Description : Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine
Last Answer : D. Ketamine
Description : The α2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine
Last Answer : B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location
Description : The α 2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine
Description : Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease
Last Answer : C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation
Description : Anthelmintic action of piperazine is due to: A. Interference with ATP generation in the worm B. Blockade of glucose uptake by the worm C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action D. Depolarization of nematode muscle by activating nicotinic receptors
Last Answer : C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action
Description : The most probable mechanism of action of mebendazole is: A. Depolarization of membrane and spastic paralysis of the worm B. Hyperpolarization of membrane and flaccid paralysis of the worm C. Loss of ... inhibition of glucose uptake in the worm D. Tegument damage and leakage of contents of the worm
Last Answer : C. Loss of intracellular microtubules and inhibition of glucose uptake in the worm
Description : The high virus selectivity of acyclovir is due to: A. Its preferential uptake by virus infected cells B. Need of virus specific enzyme for its conversion to the active metabolite C. Its action on ... reverse transcriptase which does not occur in noninfected cells D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Glucocorticoids impair carbohydrate tolerance by: A. Promoting gluconeogenesis in liver B. Depressing glucose uptake into skeletal muscles C. Inhibiting insulin secretion D. Both A and B are correct
Last Answer : D. Both A and B are correct
Description : Guargum limits post-prandial glycaemia by: A. Inhibiting intestinal brush border α-glucosidases B. Slowing carbohydrate absorption from intestine C. Releasing incretins from the intestine D. Promoting uptake of glucose into skeletal muscles
Last Answer : B. Slowing carbohydrate absorption from intestin
Description : The metabolic actions of adrenaline include the following except: A. Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver C. Lipolysis in adipose tissue D. Release of potassium from liver followed by its uptake
Last Answer : B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver
Description : The principal process which terminates the action of noradrenaline released from adrenergic nerve ending is: A. Degradation by MAO B. Methylation by COMT C. Axonal uptake D. Extraneuronal uptake
Last Answer : C. Axonal uptake
Description : The following type/types of noradrenaline uptake is blocked by reserpine: A. Axonal uptake B. Granular uptake C. Extraneuronal uptake D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. Granular uptake
Description : Tachyphylaxis to many actions on repeated injection is a feature of the following autocoid (a) Histamine (b) 5-Hydroxytryptamine (c) Bradykinin (d) Angiotensin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Dysmenorrhoea is often associated with excess production of the following autacoid by the endometrium: A. Bradykinin B. Prostaglandin C. Platelet activating factor D. 5-Hydroxytryptamine
Last Answer : B. Prostaglandin
Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon
Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide
Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action
Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action
Description : Bacteria become erythromycin resistant by the following mechanisms except: A. Becoming less permeable to erythromycin B. Elaborating an erythromycin esterase enzyme C. Elaborating a protection ... the erythromycin binding site D. Altering the ribosomal binding site through a methylase enzyme
Last Answer : C. Elaborating a ‘protection protein’ which blocks the erythromycin binding site
Description : Ondansetron blocks emetogenic impulses at the following site(s): A. Vagal afferents in intestines B. Nucleus tractus solitarius C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone D. All of the above
Description : Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors: A. Famotidine B. Loxatidine C. Omeprazole D. Pirenzepine
Last Answer : C. Omeprazole
Description : Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time
Last Answer : B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition
Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels
Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
Description : The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels
Last Answer : B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels