Description : At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination
Last Answer : B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution
Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action
Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use
Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin
Last Answer : B. Zolpidem
Description : Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic
Last Answer : D. Central excitant and hyperthermic
Description : In women of child bearing age, clomiphene citrate produces the following actions except: A. Hot flushes B. Ovulation C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion D. Polycystic ovaries
Last Answer : C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion
Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics
Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias
Description : Sucralfate promotes healing of duodenal ulcer by: A. Enhancing gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion B. Coating the ulcer and preventing the action of acid-pepsin on ulcer base C. Promoting regeneration of mucosa D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : B. Coating the ulcer and preventing the action of acid-pepsin on ulcer base
Description : Choose the antiulcer drug that inhibits gastric acid secretion, stimulates gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion and has cytoprotective action on gastric mucosa: A. Misoprostol B. Sucralfate C. Carbenoxolone sodium D. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate
Last Answer : A. Misoprostol
Description : Omeprazole exerts practically no other action except inhibition of gastric acid secretion because: A. It transforms into the active cationic forms only in the acidic pH of the gastric juice B. Its ... forms are unable to diffuse out from the gastric parietal cell canaliculi D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil
Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones
Description : Imipramine produces the following actions except: A. Euphoria B. Dryness of mouth C. Tachycardia D. Lowering of seizure threshold
Last Answer : A. Euphoria
Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence
Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence
Description : The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc
Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action
Description : Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam
Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine
Description : Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines
Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines
Description : Select the drug that antagonises diazepam action noncompetitively: A. Adenosine B. Flumazenil C. Bicuculline D. Valproic acid
Last Answer : C. Bicuculline
Description : What is TRUE about Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry: A. Good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions B. Would be reversed ... Benzodiazepam C. Post operative headache D. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects
Last Answer : B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam
Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil
Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The following antiulcer drug does not act by reducing the secretion of or neutralizing gastric acid: A. Magaldrate B. Sucralfate C. Misoprostol D. Omeprazol
Last Answer : B. Sucralfate
Description : The primary mechanism by which prostaglandins promote ulcer healing is: A. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion B. Augmentation of bicarbonate buffered mucus layer covering gastroduodenal mucosa C. Increased bicarbonate secretion in gastric juice D. Increased turnover of gastric mucosal cell
Last Answer : B. Augmentation of bicarbonate buffered mucus layer covering gastroduodenal mucosa
Description : Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors: A. Famotidine B. Loxatidine C. Omeprazole D. Pirenzepine
Last Answer : C. Omeprazole
Description : Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain
Last Answer : C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach
Description : Intravenous fentanyl is used in balanced anaesthesia to afford: A. Relaxation of chest muscles B. Analgesia C. Unconsciousness D. Suppression of gastric acid secretion
Last Answer : B. Analgesia
Description : Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions
Last Answer : B. Antivagal action
Description : Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic
Last Answer : D. Antiepileptic
Description : The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B ... sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening
Last Answer : B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularl
Description : Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances ... act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use
Last Answer : C. It does not act by potentiating GABA
Description : The following is a very potent and short acting benzodiazepine whose use as hypnotic has been noted to cause psychiatric disturbances in some cases: A. Flurazepam B. Nitrazepam C. Temazepam D. Triazolam
Last Answer : D. Triazolam
Description : Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep: A. Stage II B. Stage III C. Stage IV D. REM stage
Last Answer : A. Stage II
Description : Effect of alcohol on sleep has the following feature: A. It is a dependable hypnotic but is not prescribed because of abuse potential B. It consistently improves the quality of sleep C. It can disorganise sleep architecture D. It suppresses sleep apnoea
Last Answer : C. It can disorganise sleep architecture
Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache
Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours
Description : Clinical applications of quinine include the following except: A. Uncomplicated chloroquine resistant malaria B. Cerebral malaria C. To induce abortion D. Nocturnal leg cramps
Last Answer : C. To induce abortion
Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about ipratropium bromide: A. It preferentially dilates peripheral bronchioles B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol C. As metered dose inhaler it is used for terminating asthma attacks D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Last Answer : B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol
Description : Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin ... acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer
Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid
Description : Fluconazole offers the following advantage(s) over ketoconazole: A. It is longer acting B. Its absorption from stomach is not dependent on gastric acidity C. It produces fewer side effects D. All of the above
Description : The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding ... side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse
Last Answer : B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers
Description : Oxethazaine is used for anaesthetizing gastric mucosa because: A. It is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. It remains largely unionized in acidic medium C. It is highly ionized in acidic medium D. It produces no systemic effects even at high doses
Last Answer : B. It remains largely unionized in acidic medium
Description : Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the following except: A. Olanzapine B. Diazepam C. Sodium valproate D. Lamotrigine
Last Answer : B. Diazepam
Description : Diabetic and other types of neuropathic pain often responds to: A. Chlorpromazine B. Diazepam C. Imipramine D. Lithium
Last Answer : C. Imipramine
Description : The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone
Description : The preferred drug for status epilepticus is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone D. Rectal diazepam
Last Answer : A. Intravenous diazepam
Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever
Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever
Description : The preferred drug for suppressing febrile convulsions is: A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone B. Intravenous phenytoin C. Rectal diazepam D. Oral sodium valproate
Last Answer : C. Rectal diazepam
Description : The following drug is used to reverse the CNS depression produced by diazepam: A. Dexamphetamine B. Doxapram C. Physostigmine D. Flumazenil
Last Answer : D. Flumazenil