The following is a very potent and short acting benzodiazepine whose use as hypnotic has been noted to cause psychiatric disturbances in some cases: A. Flurazepam B. Nitrazepam C. Temazepam D. Triazolam

The following is a very potent and short acting
benzodiazepine whose use as hypnotic has been
noted to cause psychiatric disturbances in some
cases:
A. Flurazepam
B. Nitrazepam
C. Temazepam
D. Triazolam
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Triazolam
by

Related questions

Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances on discontinuation C. It does not act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Description : Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances ... act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Last Answer : C. It does not act by potentiating GABA

Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic

Description : Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic

Last Answer : D. Antiepileptic

Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use

The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. It produces physical dependence and suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property

The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Description : The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Last Answer : A. Are more potent

The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularly C. All hypnotics aggravate sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Description : The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B ... sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Last Answer : B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularl

Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Description : Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. It has no central action

Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Description : Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Description : Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Last Answer : C. It does not have antiandrogenic action

he following is true of desmopressin except: A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist B. It is more potent and longer acting than arginine vasopressin (AVP) C. It is preferred over AVP for treatment of diabetes insipidus D. It can be administered orally

Description : Che following is true of desmopressin except: A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist B. It is more potent and longer acting than arginine vasopressin (AVP) C. It is preferred over AVP for treatment of diabetes insipidus D. It can be administered orally

Last Answer : A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist

Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral bioavailability C. It is the longest acting and the safest glycoside D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Description : Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral ... so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Last Answer : D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Description : The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own

Dexamethasone differs from prednisolone in that it is: A. Longer acting B. More potent C. More selective D. All of the above

Description : Dexamethasone differs from prednisolone in that it is: A. Longer acting B. More potent C. More selective D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Last Answer : A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses

Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

Last Answer : B. Zolpidem

elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

Description : elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

Last Answer : C. Buspirone

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

The following drugs exert their action through the GABAA-benzodiazepine–receptor Cl¯ channel complex except: A. Baclofen B. Zolpidem C. Bicuculline D. Phenobarbitone

Description : The following drugs exert their action through the GABAA-benzodiazepine–receptor Cl¯ channel complex except: A. Baclofen B. Zolpidem C. Bicuculline D. Phenobarbitone

Last Answer : A. Baclofen

The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the benzodiazepine receptor C. Increase the frequency of chloride channel opening without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Description : The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the ... without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Last Answer : D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Description : The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Last Answer : D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination

Description : At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination

Last Answer : B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution

Hypnotic dose of diazepam produces the following action: A. Tachycardia B. Constipation C. Hyperalgesia D. Decreased nocturnal gastric secretion

Description : Hypnotic dose of diazepam produces the following action: A. Tachycardia B. Constipation C. Hyperalgesia D. Decreased nocturnal gastric secretion

Last Answer : D. Decreased nocturnal gastric secretion

Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant actions C. The BZD receptor is homogeneous at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones

Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep: A. Stage II B. Stage III C. Stage IV D. REM stage

Description : Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep: A. Stage II B. Stage III C. Stage IV D. REM stage

Last Answer : A. Stage II

Effect of alcohol on sleep has the following feature: A. It is a dependable hypnotic but is not prescribed because of abuse potential B. It consistently improves the quality of sleep C. It can disorganise sleep architecture D. It suppresses sleep apnoea

Description : Effect of alcohol on sleep has the following feature: A. It is a dependable hypnotic but is not prescribed because of abuse potential B. It consistently improves the quality of sleep C. It can disorganise sleep architecture D. It suppresses sleep apnoea

Last Answer : C. It can disorganise sleep architecture

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours

For limiting cerebral edema due to brain tumour, the preferred corticosteroids are betamethasone/dexamethasone because: A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention B. They are more potent C. They can be administered intravenously D. They inhibit brain tumours

Description : For limiting cerebral edema due to brain tumour, the preferred corticosteroids are betamethasone/dexamethasone because: A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention B. They are more potent C. They can be administered intravenously D. They inhibit brain tumours

Last Answer : A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention

Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

Description : Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

Last Answer : B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis

'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues

Description : 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues

Last Answer : B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration

The tricyclic antidepressants are also effective in the following psychiatric disorders except: A. Schizophrenia B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Bulimia D. Phobic states

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Last Answer : A. Schizophreni

Currently, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the preferred drugs for the following psychiatric disorder/disorders: A. Phobias B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Post-traumatic stress disorder D. All of the above

Description : Currently, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the preferred drugs for the following psychiatric disorder/disorders: A. Phobias B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Post-traumatic stress disorder D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of action C. It activates dopamine D2 receptors, with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

Description : In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of ... with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

Last Answer : D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effects

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

The essential feature in drug addiction is: A. Physical dependence B. Psychological dependence C. Both physical and psychological dependence D. Psychiatric abnormality

Description : The essential feature in drug addiction is: A. Physical dependence B. Psychological dependence C. Both physical and psychological dependence D. Psychiatric abnormality

Last Answer : B. Psychological dependence

Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Vancomycin D. Clindamycin

Description : Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Vancomycin D. Clindamycin

Last Answer : D. Clindamycin

Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril

Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril

Last Answer : A. Nifedipine

‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem

Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Dipyridamole

Prolonged painful erection of penis has been noted particularly as a side effect of: A. Doxepin B. Citalopram C. Bupropion D. Trazodone

Description : Prolonged painful erection of penis has been noted particularly as a side effect of: A. Doxepin B. Citalopram C. Bupropion D. Trazodone

Last Answer : D. Trazodone

Which of the following adverse effects of neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds: A. Sedation B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances C. Postural hypotension D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Description : Which of the following adverse effects of neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds: A. Sedation B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances C. Postural hypotension D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Last Answer : B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances

The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary and multibacillary cases C. No resistance to rifampin develops despite its use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Description : The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary ... use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Last Answer : A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases

The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: A. Coronary vasospasm B. Thrombus formation C. Vagal activation D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the hear

Description : The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: A. Coronary vasospasm B. Thrombus formation C. Vagal activation D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the hear

Last Answer : D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart

What is Street value of flurazepam 30 mg?

Description : What is Street value of flurazepam 30 mg?

Last Answer : Need answer

The 19-Norprogestins differ from progesterone derivatives in that they: A. Have potent antiovulatory activity B. Have no additional androgenic activity C. Have no additional estrogenic activity D. Are preferred for use in endometriosi

Description : The 19-Norprogestins differ from progesterone derivatives in that they: A. Have potent antiovulatory activity B. Have no additional androgenic activity C. Have no additional estrogenic activity D. Are preferred for use in endometriosi

Last Answer : A. Have potent antiovulatory activity

Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora C. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low

Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic: A. Demeclocycline B. Oxytetracycline C. Minocycline D. Doxycycline

Description : Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic: A. Demeclocycline B. Oxytetracycline C. Minocycline D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : C. Minocycline

Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Description : Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Features of atorvastatin include the following: A. Dose to dose most potent HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. Higher ceiling of LDL-cholesterol lowering action than lovastatin C. Antioxidant property D. All of the above

Description : Features of atorvastatin include the following: A. Dose to dose most potent HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. Higher ceiling of LDL-cholesterol lowering action than lovastatin C. Antioxidant property D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following is true of simvastatin except: A. It is more potent than lovastatin B. At the highest recommended dose, it causes greater LDL-cholesterol lowering than lovastatin C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism in liver D. It can raise HDL-cholesterol level when the same is low at base line

Description : The following is true of simvastatin except: A. It is more potent than lovastatin B. At the highest recommended dose, it causes greater LDL-cholesterol lowering than lovastatin C. It does not undergo ... metabolism in liver D. It can raise HDL-cholesterol level when the same is low at base line

Last Answer : C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism in liver