Currently, monotherapy of leprosy with dapsone is recommended for: A. Paucibacillary leprosy only B. Multibacillary leprosy only C. Both paucibacillary and multibacillary leprosy D. Neither paucibacillary nor multibacillary leprosy

Currently, monotherapy of leprosy with dapsone is
recommended for:
A. Paucibacillary leprosy only
B. Multibacillary leprosy only
C. Both paucibacillary and multibacillary
leprosy
D. Neither paucibacillary nor multibacillary
leprosy
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Neither paucibacillary nor multibacillary
leprosy
by

Related questions

Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for: A. Multibacillary leprosy B. Paucibacillary leprosy C. Dapsone resistant leprosy D. All forms of leprosy

Description : Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for: A. Multibacillary leprosy B. Paucibacillary leprosy C. Dapsone resistant leprosy D. All forms of leprosy

Last Answer : D. All forms of leprosy

The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary and multibacillary cases C. No resistance to rifampin develops despite its use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Description : The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary ... use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Last Answer : A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases

If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen

A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

Description : A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

Last Answer : C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy

Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. Two years or more till disease inactivity is attained D. One year for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more

Description : Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. ... for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more

Last Answer : B. One year fixed duration for all cases

Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any single effective drug in case of the following diseases except: A. Typhoid fever B. Leprosy C. AIDS D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Description : Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any single effective drug in case of the following diseases except: A. Typhoid fever B. Leprosy C. AIDS D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Last Answer : A. Typhoid fever

he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above

Description : he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Currently, monotherapy with zidovudine is recommended for: A. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count more than 200/μl B. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl C. HIV positive subjects with opportunistic infection D. None of the above

Description : Currently, monotherapy with zidovudine is recommended for: A. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count more than 200/μl B. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl C. HIV positive subjects with opportunistic infection D. None of the above

Last Answer : D. None of the above

A combination of two or more antiepileptic drugs is used: A. Routinely in all types of epilepsy B. In all cases of complex partial seizures C. In all cases of secondarily generalized seizures D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Description : A combination of two or more antiepileptic drugs is used: A. Routinely in all types of epilepsy B. In all cases of complex partial seizures C. In all cases of secondarily generalized seizures D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Last Answer : D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Lugol’s iodine is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As long term definitive monotherapy B. Preoperatively for 10-15 days C. Postoperatively for 10-15 days D. As adjuvant to carbimazole for long term therap

Description : Lugol’s iodine is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As long term definitive monotherapy B. Preoperatively for 10-15 days C. Postoperatively for 10-15 days D. As adjuvant to carbimazole for long term therap

Last Answer : B. Preoperatively for 10-15 days

Leukotriene antagonists are used in bronchial asthma: A. For terminating acute attacks B. As monotherapy in place of β2 agonists C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids D. As nebulized powder in refractory cases

Description : Leukotriene antagonists are used in bronchial asthma: A. For terminating acute attacks B. As monotherapy in place of β2 agonists C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids D. As nebulized powder in refractory cases

Last Answer : C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids

Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Description : Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Last Answer : C. Clofazimine

The most important dose dependent toxicity of dapsone is: A. Methemoglobinemia B. Haemolysis C. Hepatitis D. Dermatitis

Description : The most important dose dependent toxicity of dapsone is: A. Methemoglobinemia B. Haemolysis C. Hepatitis D. Dermatitis

Last Answer : B. Haemolysi

Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Description : Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Last Answer : A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia

Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Description : Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Last Answer : A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia

Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Description : Phenylephrine instilled in the eye produces: A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia B. Cycloplegia but no mydriasis C. Both mydriasis and cycloplegia D. Neither mydriasis nor cycloplegia

Last Answer : A. Mydriasis but no cycloplegia

In the multidrug therapy of leprosy, rifampicin is given: A. Daily B. On alternate days C. Weekly D. Monthly

Description : In the multidrug therapy of leprosy, rifampicin is given: A. Daily B. On alternate days C. Weekly D. Monthly

Last Answer : D. Monthly

Apart from its use in tuberculosis and leprosy, rifampin is a first line drug for the following infective disease: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Brucellosis C. Donovanosis D. Leishmaniasis

Description : Apart from its use in tuberculosis and leprosy, rifampin is a first line drug for the following infective disease: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Brucellosis C. Donovanosis D. Leishmaniasis

Last Answer : B. Brucellosis

The following statements are true about imipenem except: A. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, but neither a penicillin nor a cephalosporin B. It is rapidly degraded in the kidney C. It is safe in epileptics D. It is always given in combination with cilastatin

Description : The following statements are true about imipenem except: A. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, but neither a penicillin nor a cephalosporin B. It is rapidly degraded in the kidney C. It is safe in epileptics D. It is always given in combination with cilastatin

Last Answer : C. It is safe in epileptics

Indicate the condition in which neither trimethoprim nor sulfamethoxazole alone are effective, but their combination cotrimoxazole is: A. Prostatitis B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D. Bacillary dysentery

Description : Indicate the condition in which neither trimethoprim nor sulfamethoxazole alone are effective, but their combination cotrimoxazole is: A. Prostatitis B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D. Bacillary dysentery

Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

Description : elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

Last Answer : C. Buspirone

The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind acetylcholine B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules C. Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Description : The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind ... degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Last Answer : B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules

Select the drug that is neither bronchodilator nor antiinflammatory, but has antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizing activity: A. Sodium cromoglycate B. Ketotifen C. Beclomethasone dipropionate D. Chlorpheniramine

Description : Select the drug that is neither bronchodilator nor antiinflammatory, but has antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizing activity: A. Sodium cromoglycate B. Ketotifen C. Beclomethasone dipropionate D. Chlorpheniramine

Last Answer : B. Ketotifen

What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

The currently used injectable hormonal contraceptive contains: A. Long acting progestin B. Long acting estrogen C. Both long acting estrogen and progestin D. Chorionic gonadotropin

Description : The currently used injectable hormonal contraceptive contains: A. Long acting progestin B. Long acting estrogen C. Both long acting estrogen and progestin D. Chorionic gonadotropin

Last Answer : A. Long acting progestin

The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis

Description : The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis

Last Answer : B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended in all type 2 diabetes patients C. Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Description : In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended ... Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Last Answer : D. Both A and C are correct

There is a lamp inside a photography darkroom. When the darkroom door is closed, it is impossible to tell from outside the room whether or not the lamp is on. There are two switches outside the door of the darkroom. One or both of the switches may control the lamp. It also could be that neither of the switches control the lamp. All you know is that the light bulb is currently off and that the lamp and bulb are in working condition. The darkroom door is closed and once you open the door you cannot touch either of the switches. If you can only open the dark-room door one time, how can you tell which switches, if any, control the lamp? -Riddles

Description : There is a lamp inside a photography darkroom. When the darkroom door is closed, it is impossible to tell from outside the room whether or not the lamp is on. There are two switches outside the door of ... dark-room door one time, how can you tell which switches, if any, control the lamp? -Riddles

Last Answer : Turn the first switch on and leave it on for ten minutes. After ten minutes, turn that switch off and turn the second switch on. Open the darkroom door, and lightly (in case it is hot) touch the ... one controls the lamp. If the lamp is off, and the bulb is cool, neither switch controls the lamp.

Though few in number, some drugs, such as _____, can be used to treat some viral infections. a. penicillin and ampicillin b. isoniazid and dapsone c. amantadine and acyclovir d. streptomycin and amphotericin

Description : Though few in number, some drugs, such as _____, can be used to treat some viral infections. a. penicillin and ampicillin b. isoniazid and dapsone c. amantadine and acyclovir d. streptomycin and amphotericin

Last Answer : c. amantadine and acyclovir

Eman, a CPA, has a law practice. Eman has recommended one of his clients to Noel, a CPA. Noel has agreed to pay Eman 10% of the fee for services rendered by Noel to Eman's client. Who, if anyone, is in violation of the Code of Ethics? a. Both Eman and Noel b. Eman only c. Neither Eman and Noel d. Noel only

Description : Eman, a CPA, has a law practice. Eman has recommended one of his clients to Noel, a CPA. Noel has agreed to pay Eman 10% of the fee for services rendered by Noel to Eman's client. Who, if anyone, is in ... the Code of Ethics? a. Both Eman and Noel b. Eman only c. Neither Eman and Noel d. Noel only

Last Answer : Both Eman and Noe

Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first choice antibiotic for any specific infection C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Description : Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first ... of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Last Answer : C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera

Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin

Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin

Last Answer : C. Ciprofloxacin

Currently, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the preferred drugs for the following psychiatric disorder/disorders: A. Phobias B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Post-traumatic stress disorder D. All of the above

Description : Currently, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the preferred drugs for the following psychiatric disorder/disorders: A. Phobias B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Post-traumatic stress disorder D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

A saline purgative is recommended following: A. Niclosamide for tapeworm infestation B. Mebendazole for roundworm infestation C. Pyrantel pamoate for hookworm infestation D. Albendazole for whipworm infestation (Trichuriasis

Description : A saline purgative is recommended following: A. Niclosamide for tapeworm infestation B. Mebendazole for roundworm infestation C. Pyrantel pamoate for hookworm infestation D. Albendazole for whipworm infestation (Trichuriasis

Last Answer : A. Niclosamide for tapeworm infestation

Select the condition for which 3 days treatment with pyrantel pamoate is recommended in place of single dose therapy for others: A. Ascariasis B. Ancylostomiasis C. Necatoriasis D. Enterobiasis

Description : Select the condition for which 3 days treatment with pyrantel pamoate is recommended in place of single dose therapy for others: A. Ascariasis B. Ancylostomiasis C. Necatoriasis D. Enterobiasis

Last Answer : C. Necatoriasis

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination is used as clinical curative but is not recommended for prophylaxis of malaria because of: A. Risk of megaloblastic anaemia due to pyrimethamine B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine C. Need for daily administration of the d

Description : Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination is used as clinical curative but is not recommended for prophylaxis of malaria because of: A. Risk of megaloblastic anaemia due to pyrimethamine B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine C. Need for daily administration of the d

Last Answer : B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine

The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg 3 times a day × 7 days with pyrimethamine 75 mg + sulfadoxine 1500 mg on first day C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Description : The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg ... 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days

Chemoprophylaxis of malaria is recommended for the following category of subjects: A. Residents of nonendemic areas B. Residents of endemic areas C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic areas D. Travellers from endemic to nonendemic areas

Description : Chemoprophylaxis of malaria is recommended for the following category of subjects: A. Residents of nonendemic areas B. Residents of endemic areas C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic areas D. Travellers from endemic to nonendemic areas

Last Answer : C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic areas

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patients C. Adult contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI C. Fluid restriction is recommended so that the antimicrobial drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI

The following is true of simvastatin except: A. It is more potent than lovastatin B. At the highest recommended dose, it causes greater LDL-cholesterol lowering than lovastatin C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism in liver D. It can raise HDL-cholesterol level when the same is low at base line

Description : The following is true of simvastatin except: A. It is more potent than lovastatin B. At the highest recommended dose, it causes greater LDL-cholesterol lowering than lovastatin C. It does not undergo ... metabolism in liver D. It can raise HDL-cholesterol level when the same is low at base line

Last Answer : C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism in liver

Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Description : Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Last Answer : B. Prosthetic heart valves

Ticlopidine is recommended for the following except: A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke B. Transient ischaemic attacks C. To prevent occlusion of coronary artery bypass graft D. Intermittent claudication

Description : Ticlopidine is recommended for the following except: A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke B. Transient ischaemic attacks C. To prevent occlusion of coronary artery bypass graft D. Intermittent claudication

Last Answer : A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial infarction due to estrogen B. Blocks the increased risk of endometrial carcinoma due to estrogen C. Reverses vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial ... vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

Last Answer : The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is: A. Ethinylestradiol B. Estradiol benzoate C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Conjugated estrogens

A patient of chronic bronchial asthma maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg daily and inhaled salbutamol as required develops chest infection. Which of the following measures is recommended: A. Stop prednisolone B. Reduce prednisolone dose to 5 mg/day C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose D. Substitute prednisolone with inhaled budesonid

Description : A patient of chronic bronchial asthma maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg daily and inhaled salbutamol as required develops chest infection. Which of the following measures is recommended: A. ... mg/day C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose D. Substitute prednisolone with inhaled budesonid

Last Answer : C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose