Description : What would the general prognosis be for a patient with Chronic Myeloid Leukemia without treatment?
Last Answer : answer:It sounds like a bone marrow or stem cell transplantation is the treatment for CML. @minniemau5, I sorry you’re going through this.
Description : Select the correc: combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C : (A) Interferon with Ribavirin (B) Interferon with Zidovudine (C) Interferon with Stavudine (D) Interferon with Lamivudine
Last Answer : (B) Interferon with Zidovudine
Description : Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma? (A) Infliximab (B) Abciximab (C) Gemtuzumab (D) Rituximab
Last Answer : (D) Rituximab
Description : Acute myeloid leukemia?
Last Answer : DefinitionAcute myeloid leukemia (AML) is cancer that starts inside bone marrow, the soft tissue inside bones that helps form blood cells. The cancer grows from cells that would normally turn into white blood ... It generally occurs around age 65. (This article focuses on AML in adults.)AML is m
Description : Which one of the following is NOT an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India? (A) The Director General of Health Services (B) The Director of Central Drugs Laboratory (C) The Drugs Controller General of India (D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory
Last Answer : (D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory
Description : Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by (A) first order kinetics (B)second order kinetics (C) zero order kinetics (D) non-linear kinetics
Last Answer : (C) zero order kinetics
Description : Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate (A) bi-exponentially (B) tri-exponentially (C) non-exponentially (D) mono-exponentially
Last Answer : (D) mono-exponentially
Description : The common structural feature amongst the three categories of anticonvulsant drugs barbiturates, succinimides and hydantoins is (A) ureide (B) imidazolidinone (C) dihydropyrimidine (D) tetrahydropyrimidine
Last Answer : (A) ureide
Description : Stevens Johnson sjmdrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs : (A) Sulphonamides (B) Macrolides (C) Penicillins (D) Tetracyclines
Last Answer : (A) Sulphonamides
Description : Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes? (A) Chlorpromazine (B) Astemizole (C) Haloperidol (D) Domperidone
Last Answer : (B) Astemizole
Description : Which filler can NOT be used for the preparation of tablets for amine containing basic drugs to avoid discoloration of the tablets? (A) Dicalcium phosphate (B) Microcrystalline cellulose (C) Starch (D) Lactose
Last Answer : (D) Lactose
Description : In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is ( A) Schedule M (B) Schedule C (C) Schedule Y (D) Schedule H
Last Answer : ( A) Schedule M
Description : Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T lymphocytes? (A) Daclizumab (B) Prednisone (C) Sirolimus (D) Tacrolimus
Last Answer : (D) Tacrolimus
Description : Which one of the following drugs is NOT a typical anti-psychotic agent? (A) Chlorpromazine (B) Haloperidol (C) Risperidone (D) Flupentixol
Last Answer : (C) Risperidone
Description : Improvement of memory in Alzheimer's disease is brought about by drugs which increase transmission in (A) cholinergic receptors (B) dopaminergic receptors (C) GABAergic receptors (D) adrenergic receptors
Last Answer : (A) cholinergic receptors
Description : Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus? (A) Lamivudine (B) Zidovudine (C) Indinavir (D) Ribavirin
Last Answer : (B) Zidovudine
Description : Which one of the following drugs does NOT act through G-Protein coupled receptors? (A) Epinephrine (B) Insulin (C) Dopamine (D) TSH
Last Answer : (B) Insulin
Description : It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be (A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 30 mg (D) 60 mg
Last Answer : (B) 300 mg
Description : The Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be (A)10 L (B) 100 L (C) 1.0 L (D) 0.10 L
Last Answer : (A)10 L
Description : Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because (A) it gets degraded in the GIT (B) it causes severe diarrhoea (C) it causes metallic taste in the mouth (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT
Last Answer : (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT
Description : Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by (A) Cytomegalovirus (B) Candida albicans (C) Herpes zoster virus (D) Hepatitis B virus
Last Answer : Ans. A & C
Description : Identify the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum : (A.) Artemisinin (B) Primaquine (C) Quinine (D) Mefloquine
Last Answer : (B) Primaquine
Description : Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following disorders : (A) Systolic hypertension (B) Unstable angina (C) Pulmonary hypertension (D) Hypertension due to eclampsia
Last Answer : (C) Pulmonary hypertension
Description : Gentamicin and other aminoglycoside drugs are widely prescribed for treatment of _____ infections. a. fungal b. gram-positive bacterial c. gram-negative bacterial d. staphylococcal
Last Answer : c. gram-negative bacterial
Description : The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an ... d) hypoxia. Patients receiving mitoxantrone are closely monitored for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.
Last Answer : a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have ... ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.
Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'
Description : Patients taking chronic doses of nonselective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should periodically be screened for which of the following toxicities? (a) Nephrotoxicity (b) Peripheral neuropathy (c) Cardiotoxicity (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Among the disease modifying antirheumatic drugs, fastest symptom relief is obtained with: A. Auranofin B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Sulfasalazine D. Methotrexate
Last Answer : D. Methotrexate
Description : Concurrent administration of aspirin interacts unfavourably with the following drugs except: A. Furosemide B. Spironolactone C. Codeine D. Methotrexate
Last Answer : C. Codeine
Description : In which of the following techniques the sample is kept below triple point? (A) Lyophilization (B) Spray drying (C) Spray congealing (D) Centrifugation
Last Answer : (A) Lyophilization
Description : How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 liters of 1:2000 w/v solution? (A) 750 mL (B) 1000 mL (c) 1250 mL (D) 1500 mL
Last Answer : (c) 1250 mL
Description : Class 100 area is referred to (A) Manufacturing area (B) Aseptic area (C) Clean room (D) Ware house
Last Answer : (B) Aseptic area
Description : Geriatric population should be included in the following Phase of clinical trials (A) Phase I (B) Phase II (C) Phase III (D) Phase
Last Answer : (B) Phase II
Description : A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is : (A) 125% (B) 250 % (C) 12.5% (D) 1.25%
Last Answer : (C) 12.5%
Description : Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using (A) Sheep blood (B) Mice lymph (C) Horse plasma (D) Fertile eggs
Last Answer : (D) Fertile eggs
Description : In nail polish, following polymer is used as a film-former : (A) Nitrocellulose (B) Polylactic acid (C) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (D) Cellulose acetate phthalate
Last Answer : (A) Nitrocellulose
Description : The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure : (A) cc-Chymotrypsin (B) Hemoglobin (C) Insulin (D) Myoglobin
Last Answer : (B) Hemoglobin
Description : Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to (A) increase their biological activity (B) increase their disposition in lipophilic compartments of the body (C) increase their aqueous solubility (D) all of the above
Last Answer : (D) all of the above
Description : The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as : (A) temperature between 8°C and 25°C (B) temperature below 20 C (C) temperature at 0°C (D) temperature between 2c C and S: C
Last Answer : (D) temperature between 2c C and S: C
Description : Coulter counter is used in determination of (A) particle surface area (B) particle size (C) particle volume (D)all of A, B, C
Last Answer : (D)all of A, B, C
Description : Oxidative phosphorylation involves (A) Electron transport system (B) Substrate level phosphorylation (C) Reaction catalyzed by succinic thiokinase in TCA cycle (D) None of the above
Last Answer : (A) Electron transport system
Description : In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their (A) volatility (B) solubility (C)thermal conductivity (D) polarizability
Last Answer : (D) polarizability
Description : Glass transition temperature is detected through (A) X-Ray diffractometery (B) Solution calorimetery (C) Differential scanning calorimetery (D) Thermogravimetric analysis
Last Answer : (C) Differential scanning calorimetery
Description : In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than (A) 350 nm (B) 200 nm (C) 300 nm (D) 250 nm
Last Answer : (A) 350 nm
Description : In thiazides following substituent is essential for diuretic activity : (A) Chloro group at position 6 (B) Methyl group at position 2 (C) Sulphamoyl group at position 7 (D) Hydrophobic group at position 3
Last Answer : (C) Sulphamoyl group at position 7
Description : One of the following statements is NOT true : (A) Accuracy expresses the correctness of measurement (B) Precision represents reproducibility of measurement (C) High degree of precision implies high degree of accuracy also (D) High degree of accuracy implies high degree of precesion also
Last Answer : (C) High degree of precision implies high degree of accuracy also
Description : Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature : (A) PDA detector (B) Refractive Index detector (C) Electrochemical detector (D) Fluorescence detector
Last Answer : (B) Refractive Index detector
Description : Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure : (A) an endoperoxide (B) an exoperoxide (C) an epoxide (D) an acid hydrazide
Last Answer : (A) an endoperoxide
Description : Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as (A) alkylating agent before metabolism (B)alkylating agent after metabolism (C) phosphorylating agent after metabolism (D) DNA intercalating agent
Last Answer : (B)alkylating agent after metabolism
Description : A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is (A) Fluvastatin (B) Cerivastatin (C) Lovastatin (D) Somatostatin
Last Answer : (C) Lovastatin