Erythromycin should not be given to patient being treated with terfenadine because (a) Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine (b) Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur (c) Terfenadine inhibits metabolism of erythromycin (d) Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobal action of erythromycin

Erythromycin should not be given to patient being treated with terfenadine because (a) Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine (b) Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur (c) Terfenadine inhibits metabolism of erythromycin (d) Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobal action of erythromycin
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Erythromycin should not be given to a patient being treated with terfenadine because: A. Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur C. Terfenadine inhibitis metabolism of erythromycin D. Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobial action of erythromycin

Description : Erythromycin should not be given to a patient being treated with terfenadine because: A. Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias ... Terfenadine inhibitis metabolism of erythromycin D. Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobial action of erythromycin

Last Answer : B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur

The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias

The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias

Description : The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is ... the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias

Last Answer : C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis

The following second generation anti-histaminic is not likely to produce ventricular arrhythmias when administered along with ketoconazole: A. Mizolastine B. Ebastine C. Terfenadine D. Astemizole

Description : The following second generation anti-histaminic is not likely to produce ventricular arrhythmias when administered along with ketoconazole: A. Mizolastine B. Ebastine C. Terfenadine D. Astemizole

Last Answer : A. Mizolastine

In a patient of bronchial asthma, inhaled salbutamol produces the following effect(s). (a) Inhibits antigen-antibody reaction in the lungs (b) Causes bronchodilatation (c) Reduces bronchial hyperreactivity (d) Both (b) and (c)

Description : In a patient of bronchial asthma, inhaled salbutamol produces the following effect(s). (a) Inhibits antigen-antibody reaction in the lungs (b) Causes bronchodilatation (c) Reduces bronchial hyperreactivity (d) Both (b) and (c)

Last Answer : Ans: B

Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : A. Erythromycin

If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will (a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum (c) Result in decreased enzymes in the soluble cytoplasmic fraction (d) Require 3-4 months to reach completion (e) Be irreversible

Description : If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will (a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum ... soluble cytoplasmic fraction (d) Require 3-4 months to reach completion (e) Be irreversible

Last Answer : Ans: A

The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide

Description : The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Cisapride

Relative to fexofenadine, diphenhydramine is more likely to (a) Be used for treatment of asthma (b) Be used for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (c) Cause cardiac arrhythmias in overdose (d) Have efficacy in the prevention of motion sickness (e) Increase the serum concentration of warfarin

Description : Relative to fexofenadine, diphenhydramine is more likely to (a) Be used for treatment of asthma (b) Be used for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (c) Cause cardiac arrhythmias in ... ) Have efficacy in the prevention of motion sickness (e) Increase the serum concentration of warfarin

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following has overdose toxicity that includes insomnia, arrhythmias, and convulsions? (a) Aminophyline (b) Cromolyn (c) Epinephrine (d) Ipratropium (e) Metaproterenol

Description : Which of the following has overdose toxicity that includes insomnia, arrhythmias, and convulsions? (a) Aminophyline (b) Cromolyn (c) Epinephrine (d) Ipratropium (e) Metaproterenol

Last Answer : Ans: A

In an asthma patient treated with systemic corticosteroids, bronchodilator drugs (a) Are not needed (b) Are contraindicated (c) May be used on ‘as and when required’ basis (d) Are ineffective

Description : In an asthma patient treated with systemic corticosteroids, bronchodilator drugs (a) Are not needed (b) Are contraindicated (c) May be used on ‘as and when required’ basis (d) Are ineffective

Last Answer : Ans: C

Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutics plasma concentration in (a) Smokers (b) Congestive heart failure patients (c) Those receiving erythromycin (d) Those receiving cimetidine

Description : Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutics plasma concentration in (a) Smokers (b) Congestive heart failure patients (c) Those receiving erythromycin (d) Those receiving cimetidine

Last Answer : Ans: A

Histamine (a) May be released from mast cells by a number of therapeutic agents (b) Causes sedation (c) Decreases the force of contraction of ventricular muscle (d) Can cause strong contractions of the gravid human uterus

Description : Histamine (a) May be released from mast cells by a number of therapeutic agents (b) Causes sedation (c) Decreases the force of contraction of ventricular muscle (d) Can cause strong contractions of the gravid human uterus

Last Answer : Ans: D

Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues little myocardial depression and hypotension (c) It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low. Which of the following lines of action is warranted: A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor B. Continue all medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor

Which one of the following drugs is most suitable for management of essential tremor in a patient who has pulmonary disease? (a) Diazepam (b) Levodopa (c) Metoprolol (d) Propranolol (e) Terbutaline

Description : Which one of the following drugs is most suitable for management of essential tremor in a patient who has pulmonary disease? (a) Diazepam (b) Levodopa (c) Metoprolol (d) Propranolol (e) Terbutaline

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity (FVC) (c) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Description : Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity ... ) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Last Answer : Ans: D

While prescribing the conventional H1 antihistaminics the patient should be advised to avoid (a) Driving motor vehicles (b) Consuming processed cheese (c) Strenuous physical exertion (d) All of the above

Description : While prescribing the conventional H1 antihistaminics the patient should be advised to avoid (a) Driving motor vehicles (b) Consuming processed cheese (c) Strenuous physical exertion (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following agents and dosage regimens is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered sensitive to aspirin (experiences bronchospasm with use)? (a) Lbuprofen, 800 mg three times daily (b) Acetaminophen, 650 mg every 4 hours (c) Gold injections, 25 mg intramuscularly once a week (d) Azathioprine, 75 mg daily (e) Cyclophosphamide, 100 mg daily

Description : Which of the following agents and dosage regimens is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered sensitive to aspirin (experiences bronchospasm with use)? ... once a week (d) Azathioprine, 75 mg daily (e) Cyclophosphamide, 100 mg daily

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity (FVC) (c) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Description : Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care? (a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (b) Forced vital capacity ... ) Total lung capacity (TLC) (d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) (e) Residual volume (RV)

Last Answer : Ans: D

A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is vomiting frequently. A drug that might help in this situation is (a) Bromocriptine (b) Cimetidine (c) Ketanserin (d) Loratadine (e) Ondansetron

Description : A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is vomiting frequently. A drug that might help in this situation is (a) Bromocriptine (b) Cimetidine (c) Ketanserin (d) Loratadine (e) Ondansetron

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which of the following terms best describes the antagonism of leukotriene’s bronchoconstrictor effect (mediated at leukotriene receptors) by terbutaline (acting a adrenoceptors) in a patient with asthma? (a) Pharmacologic antagonist (b) Partial agonist (c) Physiologic antagonist (d) Chemical antagonist (e) Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : Which of the following terms best describes the antagonism of leukotriene's bronchoconstrictor effect (mediated at leukotriene receptors) by terbutaline (acting a adrenoceptors) in a patient with ... ) Partial agonist (c) Physiologic antagonist (d) Chemical antagonist (e) Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : Ans: C

A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronchodilator action, is (a) Cromolyn (b) Ephedrine (c) Isoproterenol (d) Metaproterenol (e) Metoprolol

Description : A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronchodilator action, is (a) Cromolyn (b) Ephedrine (c) Isoproterenol (d) Metaproterenol (e) Metoprolol

Last Answer : Ans: A

Methylxanthines exert the following action (s) at cellular/molecular level (a) Intracellular release of Ca2+ (b) Antagonism of adenosine (c) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase (d) All of the above

Description : Methylxanthines exert the following action (s) at cellular/molecular level (a) Intracellular release of Ca2+ (b) Antagonism of adenosine (c) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Caffeine is more powerful than theophylline in exerting the following action (a) Bronchodilatation (b) Cardiac stimulation (c) Diuresis (d) Augmentation of skeletal muscle contractility

Description : Caffeine is more powerful than theophylline in exerting the following action (a) Bronchodilatation (b) Cardiac stimulation (c) Diuresis (d) Augmentation of skeletal muscle contractility

Last Answer : Ans: D

The smooth muscle stimulating action of 5-HT is most marked in the (a) Bronchi (b) Intestines (c) Ureter (d) Billary tract

Description : The smooth muscle stimulating action of 5-HT is most marked in the (a) Bronchi (b) Intestines (c) Ureter (d) Billary tract

Last Answer : Ans: B

The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation

Description : The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation

Last Answer : Ans: B

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable. (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : Ans: D

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation because: A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Description : Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation because: A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Last Answer : D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation because: A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Description : Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation because: A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Last Answer : D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin

Accidental poisonings are common with both aspirin and ibuprofen, two OC drugs available in tasty chewable tablets. In cases of overdose, aspirin is more likely than ibuprofen to cause (a) Autonomic Instability (b) Hepatic necrosis (c) Metabolic acidosis (d) Thrombocytopenia (e) Ventricular arrhythmias

Description : Accidental poisonings are common with both aspirin and ibuprofen, two OC drugs available in tasty chewable tablets. In cases of overdose, aspirin is more likely than ibuprofen to cause (a) ... Instability (b) Hepatic necrosis (c) Metabolic acidosis (d) Thrombocytopenia (e) Ventricular arrhythmias

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Description : The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Last Answer : A. Mexiletine

Select the correct statement about salmeterol. (a) It is a long acting selective ß2 agonist bronchodilator (b) It is a bronchodilator with anti-inflammatory property (c) It is a ß blocker that can be safely given to asthmatics (d) It is an antihistaminic with mast cells stabilizing property

Description : Select the correct statement about salmeterol. (a) It is a long acting selective ß2 agonist bronchodilator (b) It is a bronchodilator with anti-inflammatory property (c) It is a ß blocker that can be safely given to asthmatics (d) It is an antihistaminic with mast cells stabilizing property

Last Answer : Ans: A

Fexofenadine differs from terfenadine in that: A. It undergoes high first pass metabolism in liver B. It is a prodrug C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels D. It has high affinity for central H1 receptors

Description : Fexofenadine differs from terfenadine in that: A. It undergoes high first pass metabolism in liver B. It is a prodrug C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels D. It has high affinity for central H1 receptors

Last Answer : C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels

Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT). b) occur during the QRS complex. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. c) have the same shape. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). d) are paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Acute exacerbations of asthma can be triggered by all of the following except (a) Bacterial or viral pneumonia (b) Hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin (c) Discontinuation of asthma medication (d) Hot, dry weather (e) Stressful emotional events

Description : Acute exacerbations of asthma can be triggered by all of the following except (a) Bacterial or viral pneumonia (b) Hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin (c) Discontinuation of asthma medication (d) Hot, dry weather (e) Stressful emotional events

Last Answer : Ans: D

The symptoms of allergen-mediated asthma result from which of the following? (a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells (b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways (c) Inceased vascular permeability of bronchial tissue (d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cell (e) Decreased prostaglandin production

Description : The symptoms of allergen-mediated asthma result from which of the following? (a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells (b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways (c) ... bronchial tissue (d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cell (e) Decreased prostaglandin production

Last Answer : Ans: A

Bacteria that make either a fementative or respiratory set of enzymes are known as (a) Obligate anacerobes (b) Obligate aerobes (c) Microacerophiles (d) Facultative organisms

Description : Bacteria that make either a fementative or respiratory set of enzymes are known as (a) Obligate anacerobes (b) Obligate aerobes (c) Microacerophiles (d) Facultative organisms

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following is a very longacting ß2 – selective agonist that is used for asthma prophylaxis? (a) Aminophyline (b) Cromolyn (c) Epinephrine (d) Ipratropium (e) Salmeterol

Description : Which of the following is a very longacting ß2 – selective agonist that is used for asthma prophylaxis? (a) Aminophyline (b) Cromolyn (c) Epinephrine (d) Ipratropium (e) Salmeterol

Last Answer : Ans: E

Acute exacerbations of asthma can be triggered by all of the following except (a) Bacterial of viral pneumonia (b) Hypertsensitivity reaction to penicillin (c) Discontinuation of asthma medication (d) Hot, dry weather (e) Stressful emotional events

Description : Acute exacerbations of asthma can be triggered by all of the following except (a) Bacterial of viral pneumonia (b) Hypertsensitivity reaction to penicillin (c) Discontinuation of asthma medication (d) Hot, dry weather (e) Stressful emotional events

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following is a direct bronchodilator that is most often used in asthma by the oral route? (a) Aminophyline (b) Cromolyn (c) Epinephrine (d) Ipratropium (e) Metaproterenol

Description : Which of the following is a direct bronchodilator that is most often used in asthma by the oral route? (a) Aminophyline (b) Cromolyn (c) Epinephrine (d) Ipratropium (e) Metaproterenol

Last Answer : Ans: A

Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that (a) More potent orally (b) Longer acting (c) Less muscarinic side effects (d) All of the above

Description : Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that (a) More potent orally (b) Longer acting (c) Less muscarinic side effects (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: B

What is symport ? (a) Counter transport (b) Contransport (c) Carrier mediated diffusion (d) Solvent drug

Description : What is symport ? (a) Counter transport (b) Contransport (c) Carrier mediated diffusion (d) Solvent drug

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which xanthine derivative has no function in asthma ? (a) Theophylline (b) Pentoxyphyllin (c) Enprofylin (d) None of the above

Description : Which xanthine derivative has no function in asthma ? (a) Theophylline (b) Pentoxyphyllin (c) Enprofylin (d) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: B

All the following are employed in inhalation therapy of asthma except (a) Beclomethasone (b) Budesonide (c) Dexamethasone (d) Triamcinolone

Description : All the following are employed in inhalation therapy of asthma except (a) Beclomethasone (b) Budesonide (c) Dexamethasone (d) Triamcinolone

Last Answer : Ans: C

Smooth muscle relaxation is due to stimulation of which type of histamine receptors (a) H1 (b) H2 (c) H3 (d) All of the above

Description : Smooth muscle relaxation is due to stimulation of which type of histamine receptors (a) H1 (b) H2 (c) H3 (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: B