The following second generation anti-histaminic is not likely to produce ventricular arrhythmias when administered along with ketoconazole: A. Mizolastine B. Ebastine C. Terfenadine D. Astemizole

The following second generation anti-histaminic is not likely to produce ventricular arrhythmias when administered along with ketoconazole: A. Mizolastine B. Ebastine C. Terfenadine D. Astemizole
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A. Mizolastine
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The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias

Description : The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is ... the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias

Last Answer : C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis

The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide

Description : The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Cisapride

Erythromycin should not be given to patient being treated with terfenadine because (a) Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine (b) Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur (c) Terfenadine inhibits metabolism of erythromycin (d) Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobal action of erythromycin

Description : Erythromycin should not be given to patient being treated with terfenadine because (a) Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine (b) Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur ... inhibits metabolism of erythromycin (d) Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobal action of erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Erythromycin should not be given to a patient being treated with terfenadine because: A. Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur C. Terfenadine inhibitis metabolism of erythromycin D. Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobial action of erythromycin

Description : Erythromycin should not be given to a patient being treated with terfenadine because: A. Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias ... Terfenadine inhibitis metabolism of erythromycin D. Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobial action of erythromycin

Last Answer : B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur

The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias

Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Description : The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Last Answer : A. Mexiletine

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine

Description : High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine

Last Answer : A. Diphenhydramine

High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine

Description : High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine

Last Answer : A. Diphenhydramine

Select the antifungal drug which is administered only by the oral route: A. Amphotericin B B. Ketoconazole C. Griseofulvin D. Tolnaftate

Description : Select the antifungal drug which is administered only by the oral route: A. Amphotericin B B. Ketoconazole C. Griseofulvin D. Tolnaftate

Last Answer : C. Griseofulvin

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Description : Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Last Answer : C. Astemizole

Accidental poisonings are common with both aspirin and ibuprofen, two OC drugs available in tasty chewable tablets. In cases of overdose, aspirin is more likely than ibuprofen to cause (a) Autonomic Instability (b) Hepatic necrosis (c) Metabolic acidosis (d) Thrombocytopenia (e) Ventricular arrhythmias

Description : Accidental poisonings are common with both aspirin and ibuprofen, two OC drugs available in tasty chewable tablets. In cases of overdose, aspirin is more likely than ibuprofen to cause (a) ... Instability (b) Hepatic necrosis (c) Metabolic acidosis (d) Thrombocytopenia (e) Ventricular arrhythmias

Last Answer : Ans: C

Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues little myocardial depression and hypotension (c) It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : A. Erythromycin

The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose

Description : The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose

Last Answer : B. It produces sedation as a side effect

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

The drug of choice for Kala azar is: A. Pentamidine B. Amphotericin B C. Sodium stibogluconate D. Ketoconazole

Description : The drug of choice for Kala azar is: A. Pentamidine B. Amphotericin B C. Sodium stibogluconate D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : C. Sodium stibogluconat

The following drugs are effective in systemic mycosis except: A. Terbinafine B. Itraconazole C. Ketoconazole D. Fluconazol

Description : The following drugs are effective in systemic mycosis except: A. Terbinafine B. Itraconazole C. Ketoconazole D. Fluconazol

Last Answer : A. Terbinafine

Select the drug that is fungicidal and acts by inhibiting fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme: A. Ketoconazole B. Terbinafine C. Tolnaftate D. Hamycin

Description : Select the drug that is fungicidal and acts by inhibiting fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme: A. Ketoconazole B. Terbinafine C. Tolnaftate D. Hamycin

Last Answer : B. Terbinafine

The only azole antifungal drug which has some activity against moulds like Aspergillus is: A. Itraconazole B. Fluconazole C. Miconazole D. Ketoconazole

Description : The only azole antifungal drug which has some activity against moulds like Aspergillus is: A. Itraconazole B. Fluconazole C. Miconazole D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : A. Itraconazole

Fluconazole offers the following advantage(s) over ketoconazole: A. It is longer acting B. Its absorption from stomach is not dependent on gastric acidity C. It produces fewer side effects D. All of the above

Description : Fluconazole offers the following advantage(s) over ketoconazole: A. It is longer acting B. Its absorption from stomach is not dependent on gastric acidity C. It produces fewer side effects D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the azole antifungal drug which is used only topically: A. Ketoconazole B. Fluconazole C. Itraconazole D. Econazole

Description : Choose the azole antifungal drug which is used only topically: A. Ketoconazole B. Fluconazole C. Itraconazole D. Econazole

Last Answer : D. Econazole

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities

Description : Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities

Last Answer : C. Kidney damage

Which antifungal agent is effective in both dermatophytosis as well as systemic mycosis: A. Amphotericin B B. Griseofulvin C. Clotrimazole D. Ketoconazole

Description : Which antifungal agent is effective in both dermatophytosis as well as systemic mycosis: A. Amphotericin B B. Griseofulvin C. Clotrimazole D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : D. Ketoconazole

The drug of choice for monilial diarrhoea is: A. Flucytosine B. Nystatin C. Natamycin D. Ketoconazole

Description : The drug of choice for monilial diarrhoea is: A. Flucytosine B. Nystatin C. Natamycin D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : B. Nystatin

Circulating testosterone levels in men are elevated during treatment with: A. Danazol B. Finasteride C. Flutamide D. Ketoconazole

Description : Circulating testosterone levels in men are elevated during treatment with: A. Danazol B. Finasteride C. Flutamide D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : C. Flutamide

The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity

Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

Description : Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Description : The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Last Answer : D. Increased vagal tone

The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Description : The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium

The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Description : The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium

The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Description : The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Last Answer : C. Cyproheptadine

The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Description : The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Last Answer : C. Cyproheptadine

The most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of the following reaction in certain recipients: A. Ventricular arrhythmia B. Agranulocytosis C. Haemolysis D. Anaphylaxis

Description : The most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of the following reaction in certain recipients: A. Ventricular arrhythmia B. Agranulocytosis C. Haemolysis D. Anaphylaxis

Last Answer : C. Haemolysis

Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction is contraindicated in the presence of the following except: A. Peptic ulcer B. Ventricular extrasystoles C. History of recent trauma D. Severe hypertension

Description : Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction is contraindicated in the presence of the following except: A. Peptic ulcer B. Ventricular extrasystoles C. History of recent trauma D. Severe hypertension

Last Answer : B. Ventricular extrasystoles

Thrombolytic therapy instituted within 3-6 hours of onset of acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces mortality B. Reduces area of myocardial necrosis C. Preserves ventricular function D. All of the above

Description : Thrombolytic therapy instituted within 3-6 hours of onset of acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces mortality B. Reduces area of myocardial necrosis C. Preserves ventricular function D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It is contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Description : Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Last Answer : C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload.

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Description : ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles

yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels

The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Description : The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Last Answer : A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci

The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Description : The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it ... erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide