Ventricular assist device?

Ventricular assist device?
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DefinitionVentricular assist devices (VAD) help your heart pump blood from the main pumping chamber of your heart (the left ventricle) to the rest of your body. These pumps may be implanted in your body or connected to a pump outside your body.Alternative NamesVAD; RVAD; LVAD; BVAD; Right ventricular assist device; Left ventricular assist device; Biventricular assist device; Heart pump; Left ventricular assist system; LVAS; Implantable ventricular assist deviceDescriptionA ventricular assist device has three parts:A pump. The pump weighs 1 to 2 pounds. It is placed in your belly if you will need it permanently, or it may also be used outside of your body when you are waiting for a permanent pump or a heart transplant.An electronic controller. The controller is like a small computer that co
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The relaxation techniques of progressive muscle relaxation, relaxation with guided imagery, and the Benson Relaxation Response share which of the following elements? a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude. b) Nutritional foundation Relaxation techniques do not encompass specific nutritional guidelines. c) Analgesic preparation Relaxation techniques are used to reduce one’s response to stress and do not require analgesia prior to practicing the techniques. d) Physician’s order A physician’s order is not required to assist an individual to learn techniques to reduce one’s response to stress.

Description : The relaxation techniques of progressive muscle relaxation, relaxation with guided imagery, and the Benson Relaxation Response share which of the following elements? a) A mental device (something on which ... required to assist an individual to learn techniques to reduce one's response to stress.

Last Answer : a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude.

Assertion `:` The pause between the end of the second sound and the beginning of the first sound coincides with ventricular diastole. Reason `:` The s

Description : Assertion `:` The pause between the end of the second sound and the beginning of the first sound coincides with ventricular diastole. Reason `:` The s

Last Answer : Assertion `:` The pause between the end of the second sound and the beginning of the first sound ... . D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

Assertion `:` First heart sound (LUBB) is produced at the beginning fo ventricular systole stage. Reason `:` During ventricular systole semilunar valv

Description : Assertion `:` First heart sound (LUBB) is produced at the beginning fo ventricular systole stage. Reason `:` During ventricular systole semilunar valv

Last Answer : Assertion `:` First heart sound (LUBB) is produced at the beginning fo ventricular systole stage. Reason ... D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

Assertion `:` During diastole, ventricles receives blood from auricles. Reason `:` During ventricular diastole (stage of rapid inflow) the pressure in

Description : Assertion `:` During diastole, ventricles receives blood from auricles. Reason `:` During ventricular diastole (stage of rapid inflow) the pressure in

Last Answer : Assertion `:` During diastole, ventricles receives blood from auricles. Reason `:` During ventricular ... . If both Assertion & Reason are false.

During ventricular systole `:-`

Description : During ventricular systole `:-`

Last Answer : During ventricular systole `:-` A. Semilunar valves are closed B. About 30 percent ... Bicuspid valves are closed D. Ventricular pressure declines

Ventricular contraction in command of `:-`

Description : Ventricular contraction in command of `:-`

Last Answer : Ventricular contraction in command of `:-` A. S.A. Node B. A.V. Node C. Purkinje fibres D. Papillary muscles

Ventricular septal defect?

Description : Ventricular septal defect?

Last Answer : DefinitionVentricular septal defect describes one or more holes in the wall that separates the right and left ventricles of the heart. Ventricular septal defect is one of the most common congenital (present from ... . The baby may have no symptoms, and the hole can eventually close as the wall co

Ventricular tachycardia?

Description : Ventricular tachycardia?

Last Answer : DefinitionVentricular tachycardia (VT) is a rapid heartbeat that starts in the ventricles.Alternative NamesWide-complex tachycardia; V tach; Tachycardia - ventricularCauses, incidence, and risk ... .Ventricular tachycardia can also be caused by:Anti-arrhythmic medicationsChanges in blood che

What is the best treatment for ventricular tachycardia?

Description : What is the best treatment for ventricular tachycardia?

Last Answer : The mainstays of treatment for clinically stable ventricular tachycardia are the various antidysrhythmic drugs. These are limited to procainamide, lidocaine, amiodarone, and a handful of intravenous beta-adrenergic blocking agents.

How can I tell if I have ventricular tachycardia?

Description : How can I tell if I have ventricular tachycardia?

Last Answer : There are certain symptoms of ventricular tachycardia that can help physicians diagnose it including palpitations and dizziness. You should see a doctor.

Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin. C. Premature atrial or ventricular contractions on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Description : Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm ... on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin concentration is a misleading sign. Evidence of congestive ... or ventricular contractions on the electrocardiogram are less strong determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication

The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Last Answer : Ans: A

Histamine (a) May be released from mast cells by a number of therapeutic agents (b) Causes sedation (c) Decreases the force of contraction of ventricular muscle (d) Can cause strong contractions of the gravid human uterus

Description : Histamine (a) May be released from mast cells by a number of therapeutic agents (b) Causes sedation (c) Decreases the force of contraction of ventricular muscle (d) Can cause strong contractions of the gravid human uterus

Last Answer : Ans: D

Erythromycin should not be given to patient being treated with terfenadine because (a) Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine (b) Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur (c) Terfenadine inhibits metabolism of erythromycin (d) Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobal action of erythromycin

Description : Erythromycin should not be given to patient being treated with terfenadine because (a) Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine (b) Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur ... inhibits metabolism of erythromycin (d) Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobal action of erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: B

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable. (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : Ans: D

Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues little myocardial depression and hypotension (c) It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: D

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : Ans: C

Accidental poisonings are common with both aspirin and ibuprofen, two OC drugs available in tasty chewable tablets. In cases of overdose, aspirin is more likely than ibuprofen to cause (a) Autonomic Instability (b) Hepatic necrosis (c) Metabolic acidosis (d) Thrombocytopenia (e) Ventricular arrhythmias

Description : Accidental poisonings are common with both aspirin and ibuprofen, two OC drugs available in tasty chewable tablets. In cases of overdose, aspirin is more likely than ibuprofen to cause (a) ... Instability (b) Hepatic necrosis (c) Metabolic acidosis (d) Thrombocytopenia (e) Ventricular arrhythmias

Last Answer : Ans: C

Heart failure cells, i.e.. macrophages loaded with haemosiderin, are most likely found in C A. Ascites fluid in congestive heart failure B. Pulmonary alveoli in mitral stenosis C. Left ventricular myocardium following infarction and reperfusion D. None of these

Description : Heart failure cells, i.e.. macrophages loaded with haemosiderin, are most likely found in C A. Ascites fluid in congestive heart failure B. Pulmonary alveoli in mitral stenosis C. Left ventricular myocardium following infarction and reperfusion D. None of these

Last Answer : Ascites fluid in congestive heart failure B. Pulmonary alveoli in mitral stenosis C. Left ventricul

In addition to pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect, Tetralogy of Fallot includes: A A. Dextroposition of aorta and right ventricular hypertrophy B. Dextroposition of aorta and left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy and left atrial dilatation D. None of these

Description : In addition to pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect, Tetralogy of Fallot includes: A A. Dextroposition of aorta and right ventricular hypertrophy B. Dextroposition of aorta and left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy and left atrial dilatation D. None of these

Last Answer : Dextroposition of aorta and right ventricular hypertrophy

The following are true about cardiac contraction: a. the P wave initiates the atrial contraction b. atrial contribution to ventricular filling is most effective at fast heart rate. c. b wave is generated by atrial contraction d. fourth heart sound occurs during atrial contraction

Description : The following are true about cardiac contraction: a. the P wave initiates the atrial contraction b. atrial contribution to ventricular filling is most effective at fast heart rate. c. b wave is generated by atrial contraction d. fourth heart sound occurs during atrial contraction

Last Answer : fourth heart sound occurs during atrial contraction

Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function. (a) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands. (b) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle. (c) Progesterone - corpus luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs. (d) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall, increases the blood pressure.

Description : Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function. (a) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands. (b) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the ... sex organs. (d) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall, increases the blood pressure.

Last Answer : (b) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle

The pacesetter in the heart is called (a) sino-atrial node (SAN) (b) atrio-ventricular node (AVN) (c) Purkinje fibres (d) papillary muscle.

Description : The pacesetter in the heart is called (a) sino-atrial node (SAN) (b) atrio-ventricular node (AVN) (c) Purkinje fibres (d) papillary muscle.

Last Answer : (b) atrio-ventricular node (AVN)

The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the (a) beginning of the systole (b) end of systole (c) contraction of both the atria (d) initiation of the ventricular contraction.

Description : The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the (a) beginning of the systole (b) end of systole (c) contraction of both the atria (d) initiation of the ventricular contraction.

Last Answer : (c) contraction of both the atria

Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when(a) AV node receives signal from SA node (b) AV valves open up (c) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria (d) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles.

Description : Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when (a) AV node receives signal from SA node (b) AV valves open up (c) Ventricular ... blood from atria (d) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles.

Last Answer : (d) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles

What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL ? (a) 125 beats per minute (b) 50 beats per minute (c) 75 beats per minute (d) 100 beats per minute

Description : What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL ? (a) 125 beats per minute (b) 50 beats per minute (c) 75 beats per minute (d) 100 beats per minute

Last Answer : (d) 100 beats per minute

When the balloon on the distal tip of a pulmonary artery catheter is inflated and a pressure is measured, the measurement obtained is referred to as the a) pulmonary artery wedge pressure. When the balloon is inflated, the tip of the catheter floats into smaller branches of the pulmonary arty until it can no longer be passed and the pressure is recorded, reflecting left atrial pressure and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

Description : When the balloon on the distal tip of a pulmonary artery catheter is inflated and a pressure is measured, the measurement obtained is referred to as the a) pulmonary artery wedge ... Cardiac output is determined through thermodilution involving injection of fluid into the pulmonary artery catheter.

Last Answer : a) pulmonary artery wedge pressure. When the balloon is inflated, the tip of the catheter floats into smaller branches of the pulmonary arty until it can no longer be passed and the pressure is recorded, reflecting left atrial pressure and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT). b) occur during the QRS complex. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. c) have the same shape. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). d) are paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).

Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization b) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. c) PR interval The PR interval is a component of an ECG tracing reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the AV node. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization b) P ... QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization

Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low. b) T wave The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or “peaked” if a patient’s serum potassium level is high. c) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may ... interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low.

Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart. b) Left atrium The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation. c) Left ventricle The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium. d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

Description : Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return ... d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

Last Answer : a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart.

if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and atropinic agents during sedation or anesthesia for cardioversion. Ketamine is relatively contraindicatedthe cause of premature ventricular contraction? decrease O2 supply to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Description : if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and ... to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Last Answer : decrease O2 supply to the muscle

The most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of the following reaction in certain recipients: A. Ventricular arrhythmia B. Agranulocytosis C. Haemolysis D. Anaphylaxis

Description : The most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of the following reaction in certain recipients: A. Ventricular arrhythmia B. Agranulocytosis C. Haemolysis D. Anaphylaxis

Last Answer : C. Haemolysis

The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias

Description : The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is ... the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias

Last Answer : C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis

The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide

Description : The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Cisapride

Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction is contraindicated in the presence of the following except: A. Peptic ulcer B. Ventricular extrasystoles C. History of recent trauma D. Severe hypertension

Description : Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction is contraindicated in the presence of the following except: A. Peptic ulcer B. Ventricular extrasystoles C. History of recent trauma D. Severe hypertension

Last Answer : B. Ventricular extrasystoles

Thrombolytic therapy instituted within 3-6 hours of onset of acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces mortality B. Reduces area of myocardial necrosis C. Preserves ventricular function D. All of the above

Description : Thrombolytic therapy instituted within 3-6 hours of onset of acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces mortality B. Reduces area of myocardial necrosis C. Preserves ventricular function D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It is contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Description : Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Last Answer : C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload.

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Description : The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Last Answer : A. Mexiletine

ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Description : ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels