Description : Among the disease modifying antirheumatic drugs, fastest symptom relief is obtained with: A. Auranofin B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Sulfasalazine D. Methotrexate
Last Answer : D. Methotrexate
Description : The following antirheumatic drug affords symptomatic relief but does not bring about remission in rheumatoid arthritis: A. Gold sodium thiomalate B. Prednisolone C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Leflunomide
Last Answer : B. Prednisolone
Description : Which of the following is a reserve drug but not a disease modifying drug in rheumatoid arthritis: A. Chloroquine B. Sulfasalazine C. Prednisolone D. Methotrexate
Last Answer : C. Prednisolone
Description : All the enzymes required for de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides are cytosolic except (A) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (B) Aspartate transcarbamoylase (C) Dihydro-orotase (D) Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : Select the drug which inhibits cyclooxygenase in the brain but not at peripheral sites of inflammation: A. Nimesulide B. Paracetamol C. Ketorolac D. Mephenamic acid
Last Answer : B. Paracetamol
Description : What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended
Last Answer : A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy
Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed
Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed
Description : Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs are indicated in rheumatoid arthritis: A. In place of NSAIDs in patients who donot tolerate the latter B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive ... to afford symptomatic relief D. In all patients irrespective of disease status/ concurrent medication
Last Answer : B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive disease
Description : Select the drug that reversibly inhibits the enzyme COMT and is useful as an adjuvant medication in advanced parkinson's disease: A. Pramipexole B. Entacapone C. Pergolide D. Piribedil
Last Answer : B. Entacapone
Description : The high virus selectivity of acyclovir is due to: A. Its preferential uptake by virus infected cells B. Need of virus specific enzyme for its conversion to the active metabolite C. Its action on ... reverse transcriptase which does not occur in noninfected cells D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : What is true of isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH): A. An active transport mechanism concentrates INH inside sensitive mycobacteria B. Sensitive mycobacteria generate an active metabolite of INH through a catalaseperoxidase enzyme C. The most common mechanism of INH resistance is mutation i
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis
Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex
Description : Orotic aciduria type II reflects the deficiency of the enzyme: (A) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase (B) Orotidylate decarboxylase (C) Dihydroorotase (D) Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : Ethanol is used in methanol poisoning because it: A. Antagonises the actions of methanol B. Stimulates the metabolism of methanol and reduces its blood level C. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite D. Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methano
Last Answer : C. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite
Description : N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because: A. It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex B. It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of ... scavenger D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol
Last Answer : D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol
Description : Which of the following is an efficacious antiinflammatory drug but a relatively weak inhibitor of cyclooxygenase: A. Nimesulide B. Paracetamol C. Ketoprofen D. Indomethacin
Last Answer : A. Nimesulide
Description : Which analgesic-antiinflammatory drug is more appropriate in musculo-skeletal disorder where pain is more prominent than inflammation: A. Ibuprofen B. Piroxicam C. Indomethacin D. Nimesulide
Last Answer : A. Ibuprofen
Description : The preferred drug for controlling an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is: A. Prednisolone B. Sulfasalazine C. Mesalazine D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : . Prednisolone
Description : The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is exerted by: A. Inhibitory action of the unabsorbed drug on the abnormal colonic flora B. Breakdown of the drug in ... locally C. Release of sulfapyridine having antibacterial property D. Systemic immunomodulatory action of the drug
Last Answer : B. Breakdown of the drug in colon to release 5-aminosalicylic acid which suppresses inflammation locally
Description : The following is true of topiramate except: A. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug B. It inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase C. It is used as add-on therapy in refractory partial seizures D. It is not effective in generalized tonic-clonic seizures
Last Answer : D. It is not effective in generalized tonic-clonic seizures
Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion
Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis
Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits
Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low
Description : The primary role of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is: A. Suppression of enteroinvasive pathogens B. Control of acute exacerbations of the disease C. Maintenance of remission D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
Last Answer : C. Maintenance of remission
Description : Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms
Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections
Last Answer : B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life
Last Answer : A. Generation of an active metabolit
Description : The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it ... erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine
Last Answer : A. Disopyramide
Description : The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling
Last Answer : B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine
Description : In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of ... with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect
Last Answer : D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effects
Description : The following statement is not true of carbamazepine: A. It generates an active metabolite B. Its plasma half life decreases to nearly half of the original value after chronic use C. It is being used in mania D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures
Last Answer : D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures
Description : Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine
Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine
Description : Orotic aciduria type I reflects the deficiency of enzymes: (A) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase and orotidylate decarboxylase (B) Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (C) Dihydroorotase (D) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Which of the following drugs can afford both haemodynamic improvement as well as disease modifying benefits in CHF: A. Furosemide B. Milrinone C. Losartan D. Digoxin
Last Answer : C. Losartan
Description : A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme Xanthine oxidase is (A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinal (C) Colchicine (D) Phenyl benzoate
Description : A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is (A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinol (C) Colchicine (D) Probenecid
Last Answer : B
Last Answer : (B) Allopurinol
Description : The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins
Last Answer : C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients
Description : What is true of nimesulide: A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition B. It is preferred for long-term use in rheumatoid arthritis C. It is contraindicated in aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition
Description : Dietary deficiency of thiamin inhibits the activity of the enzyme: (A) Pyruvate kinase (B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (C) Phosphofructokinase (D) Enolase
Description : In glycolytic pathway, iodacetate inhibits the activity of the enzyme: (A) Phosphotriose isomerase (B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (C) Pyruvate kinase (D) Phosphofructokinase
Description : Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Which component of sulfasalazine is responsible for the therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis: A. Intact sulfasalazine molecule B. Sulfapyridine C. 5–aminosalicylic acid D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
Last Answer : B. Sulfapyridine
Description : Trimethoprim inhibits bacteria without affecting mammalian cells because: A. It does not penetrate mammalian cells B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate ... bacterial folate synthetase as well as dihydrofolate reductase enzymes D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate reductase enzyme
Description : Hydrocortisone induces the synthesis of the following protein which in turn inhibits the enzyme phospholipase-A2: A. Heat shock protein-90 B. Inhibin C. Transcortin D. Lipocortin
Last Answer : D. Lipocortin
Description : Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The following is true for gentamicin: A. It is more active in acidic medium B. It has a wide margin of safety C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration D. It primarily inhibits gram positive bacteria
Last Answer : C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration
Description : Which of the following is a specific inhibitor of the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase and is useful in the treatment of methanol poisoning: A. Disulfiram B. Ethylene glycol C. Calcium leucovorin D. Fomepizole
Last Answer : D. Fomepizole
Description : A prodrug is: A. The prototype member of a class of drugs B. The oldest member of a class of drugs C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation
Last Answer : C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite
Description : Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation: A. Nelfinavir B. Nevirapine C. Stavudine D. Didanosine
Last Answer : B. Nevirapine