02. What does “pharmacokinetics” include? a) Complications of drug therapy b) Drug biotransformation in the organism c) Influence of drugs on metabolism processes d) Influence of drugs on genes

02.    What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a)    Complications of drug therapy
b)    Drug biotransformation in the organism
c)    Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d)    Influence of drugs on genes
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b)    Drug biotransformation in the organism
by

Related questions

02. What does “pharmacokinetics” include? a) Pharmacological effects of drugs b) Unwanted effects of drugs c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent d) Distribution of drugs in the organism

Description : 02. What does “pharmacokinetics” include? a) Pharmacological effects of drugs b) Unwanted effects of drugs c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent d) Distribution of drugs in the organism

Last Answer : d) Distribution of drugs in the organism

Pharmacokinetics is: a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs c) The study of mechanisms of drug action d) The study of methods of new drug development

Description : Pharmacokinetics is: a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs c) The study of mechanisms of drug action d) The study of methods of new drug development

Last Answer : b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs

03. What does “pharmacokinetics” include? a) Localization of drug action b) Mechanisms of drug action c) Excretion of substances d) Interaction of substances

Description : 03. What does “pharmacokinetics” include? a) Localization of drug action b) Mechanisms of drug action c) Excretion of substances d) Interaction of substances

Last Answer : c) Excretion of substances

07. What is implied by «active transport»? a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion b) Transport without energy consumption c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation

Description : 07. What is implied by «active transport»? a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion b) Transport without energy consumption c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation

Last Answer : d) Transport against concentration gradient

10. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized: a) Oral b) Transdermal c) Rectal d) Intraduodenal

Description : 10. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized: a) Oral b) Transdermal c) Rectal d) Intraduodenal

Last Answer : c) Rectal

04. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is: a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion) b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion) c) Endocytosis and exocytosis d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)

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Last Answer : PHARMACOKINETICS

12. What is characteristic of the oral route? a) Fast onset of effect b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory

Description : 12. What is characteristic of the oral route? a) Fast onset of effect b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory

Last Answer : b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function

11. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect? a) Sublingual b) Oral c) Intravenous d) Intramuscular

Description : 11. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect? a) Sublingual b) Oral c) Intravenous d) Intramuscular

Last Answer : b) Oral

08. What does the term “bioavailability” mean? a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze

Description : 08. What does the term bioavailability mean? a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic ... following any route administration d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze

Last Answer : C

09. The reasons determing bioavailability are: a) Rheological parameters of blood b) Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes c) Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect d) Glomerular filtration rate

Description : 09. The reasons determing bioavailability are: a) Rheological parameters of blood b) Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes c) Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect d) Glomerular filtration rate

Last Answer : C

06. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property: a) Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids b) Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis c) Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier d) High reabsorption in renal tubules

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Last Answer : a) Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids

05. What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion? a) Lipid-soluble b) Non-ionized substances c) Hydrophobic substances d) Hydrophilic substances 06. A hydrophilic medicinal agent

Description : 05. What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion? a) Lipid-soluble b) Non-ionized substances c) Hydrophobic substances d) Hydrophilic substances 06. A hydrophilic medicinal agent

Last Answer : d) Hydrophilic substances

Biotransformation of drugs is primarily directed to: A. Activate the drug B. Inactivate the drug C. Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites D. Convert nonlipid soluble drugs into lipid soluble metabolites

Description : Biotransformation of drugs is primarily directed to: A. Activate the drug B. Inactivate the drug C. Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites D. Convert nonlipid soluble drugs into lipid soluble metabolites

Last Answer : C. Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites

Biotransformation of drugs is primarily directed to: A. Activate the drug B. Inactivate the drug C. Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites D. Convert nonlipid soluble drugs into lipid soluble metabolites

Description : Biotransformation of drugs is primarily directed to: A. Activate the drug B. Inactivate the drug C. Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites D. Convert nonlipid soluble drugs into lipid soluble metabolites

Last Answer : C. Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites

The pharmacokinetics of drugs in the neonate differs from that in adults, because their: A. Intestinal transit is fast B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are overactive C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed D. Glomerular filtration rate is high

Description : The pharmacokinetics of drugs in the neonate differs from that in adults, because their: A. Intestinal transit is fast B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are overactive C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed D. Glomerular filtration rate is high

Last Answer : C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

The pharmacokinetics of drugs in the neonate differs from that in adults, because their: A. Intestinal transit is fast B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are overactive C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed D. Glomerular filtration rate is high

Description : The pharmacokinetics of drugs in the neonate differs from that in adults, because their: A. Intestinal transit is fast B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are overactive C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed D. Glomerular filtration rate is high

Last Answer : C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will (a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum (c) Result in decreased enzymes in the soluble cytoplasmic fraction (d) Require 3-4 months to reach completion (e) Be irreversible

Description : If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will (a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum ... soluble cytoplasmic fraction (d) Require 3-4 months to reach completion (e) Be irreversible

Last Answer : Ans: A

The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics include : (A) Area under the curve is proportional to the dose (B) Elimination half-life remains constant, (C) Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose (D) Amount of drug excreted through remains constant

Description : The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics include : (A) Area under the curve is proportional to the dose (B) Elimination half-life remains constant, (C) Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose (D) Amount of drug excreted through remains constant

Last Answer : (C) Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose

Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate (A) bi-exponentially (B) tri-exponentially (C) non-exponentially (D) mono-exponentially

Description : Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate (A) bi-exponentially (B) tri-exponentially (C) non-exponentially (D) mono-exponentially

Last Answer : (D) mono-exponentially

In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

Description : In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

Last Answer : D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

Description : In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

Last Answer : D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected

Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2

Description : Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2

Last Answer : A. CYP 3A4

Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2

Description : Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2

Last Answer : A. CYP 3A4

Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur with resultant loss of weight. When weight loss exceeds 10–15% of body weight, the complications of malnutrition interact with disease processes, with increased morbidity and mortality rates. The goal of nutritional support is maintenance of body cell mass and limitation of weight loss to less than 10% preinjury. The major impact of nutritional support in the trauma patient is to aid host defense. Under-nutrition may compromise the available host defense mechanism and may thus increase the likelihood of invasive sepsis, multiple organ system failure, and death. Resuscitation, oxygenation and arrest

Description : Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur ... requirements, caloric requirements should be distributed at a ratio of 70% as glucose and 30% as fat

Last Answer : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning body fuel reserves? a. The largest fuel reserve in the body is skeletal muscle b. Fat provides about 9 calories/gram c. Free glucose and glycogen stores are a trivial fuel reserve d. Body protein is a valuable storage form of energy

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy

The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Description : The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to ... output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Last Answer : a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin therapy prevents granulomatous lesions and cardiac complications of acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Description : Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin ... acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid

The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3 months B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Description : The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the ... 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Last Answer : B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Description : What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Last Answer : A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy

What are the complications of taking anti-hypertensive drugs ?

Description : What are the complications of taking anti-hypertensive drugs ?

Last Answer : : Yes , most medicines have some side effects. But modern anti-hypertensive drugs are much safer.

Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels is known as (a) biotransformation (b) biogeochemical cycling (c) biomagnification (d) biodeterioration.

Description : Increase in concentration of the toxicant at  successive trophic levels is known as (a) biotransformation  (b) biogeochemical cycling (c) biomagnification (d) biodeterioration.

Last Answer : (c) biomagnification

Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels is known as (a) biotransformation (b) biogeochemical cycling (c) biomagnification (d) biodeterioration.

Description : Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels is known as (a) biotransformation (b) biogeochemical cycling (c) biomagnification (d) biodeterioration.

Last Answer : (c) biomagnification

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Complications of over treatment with thyroxine include the following except: A. Auricular fibrillation B. Angina pectoris C. Congestive heart failure D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

Description : Complications of over treatment with thyroxine include the following except: A. Auricular fibrillation B. Angina pectoris C. Congestive heart failure D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

Last Answer : D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

17.6 Complications of over treatment with thyroxine include the following except: A. Auricular fibrillation B. Angina pectoris C. Congestive heart failure D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

Description : 17.6 Complications of over treatment with thyroxine include the following except: A. Auricular fibrillation B. Angina pectoris C. Congestive heart failure D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

Last Answer : D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

Steel will respond to hardening by heat treatment processes, only when the minimum carbon content in it is __________ percent. (A) 0.02 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.35 (D) 0.5

Description : Steel will respond to hardening by heat treatment processes, only when the minimum carbon content in it is __________ percent. (A) 0.02 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.35 (D) 0.5

Last Answer : (B) 0.2

Drug/drugs effective in filariasis include: A. Ivermectin B. Albendazole C. Diethyl carbamazine citrate D. All of the above

Description : Drug/drugs effective in filariasis include: A. Ivermectin B. Albendazole C. Diethyl carbamazine citrate D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Description : Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if ... (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Last Answer : Ans: A

Antioxidants help a person maintain good health because they (a) prevent the vitamins deficiency. (b) prevent excessive oxidation of glucose and other carbohydrates. (c) neutralise the free radicals formed in the body during metabolism. (d) activate certain genes in the body cells which help delay the ageing process.

Description : Antioxidants help a person maintain good health because they (a) prevent the vitamins deficiency. (b) prevent excessive oxidation of glucose and other carbohydrates. (c) neutralise the free radicals ... metabolism. (d) activate certain genes in the body cells which help delay the ageing process.

Last Answer : Ans:(c)

At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination

Description : At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination

Last Answer : B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution

Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Description : Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Last Answer : B. Renal excretion

Introduction of foreign genes for improving genotype is Or Insertion or deletion of one or more new genes which are absent in an organism by artificia

Description : Introduction of foreign genes for improving genotype is Or Insertion or deletion of one or more new genes which are absent in an organism by artificia

Last Answer : Introduction of foreign genes for improving genotype is Or Insertion or deletion of one or more ... . vernalization C. genetic engineering D. eugenics

What term would best be used to describe an organism possessing two identical genes for a trait?

Description : What term would best be used to describe an organism possessing two identical genes for a trait?

Last Answer : Need answer

What is A situation in which genes are attached to an organisms sex chromosomes the sex of an organism influences the expression of a gene?

Description : What is A situation in which genes are attached to an organisms sex chromosomes the sex of an organism influences the expression of a gene?

Last Answer : s.e.x linked

How may changes to genes that is mutation result in harmful beneficial or neutral effects to the organism?

Description : How may changes to genes that is mutation result in harmful beneficial or neutral effects to the organism?

Last Answer : Mutations are random changes so there is no way to predict what kind of effect they will have.

.Match the terms in column I with their description in column II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II A. Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character B. Co-dominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself C. Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully D. Polygenic (iv) A single gene inheritance influences many characters A B C D (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Description : .Match the terms in column I with their description in column II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II A. Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character B. Co-dominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele ... (i) (ii) (c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Last Answer : (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for (a) segregation of alleles (b) recombination of linked alleles (c) dominance of genes (d) linkage between genes.

Description : Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for (a) segregation of alleles (b) recombination of linked alleles (c) dominance of genes (d) linkage between genes.

Last Answer : b) recombination of linked alleles

Genes in higher organism are located in:

Description : Genes in higher organism are located in:

Last Answer : Genome (DNA)

Consider the following methods by which gene therapy can be performed: 1. By introducing a new gene into the body 2. By the use of stem cells 3. By delivery of genes using gold nanoparticles The correct methods could be: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Description : Consider the following methods by which gene therapy can be performed: 1. By introducing a new gene into the body 2. By the use of stem cells 3. By delivery of genes using gold nanoparticles The correct methods could be: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Last Answer : Ans:(a)