Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Which of the following is Type B ADRS?

a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin

b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine

c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine

d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine 
by

Related questions

Idiosyncrasy is_______________. a) Type A ADRs b) Type B ADRs c) Type C ADRs d) Type D ADRs

Description : Idiosyncrasy is_______________. a) Type A ADRs b) Type B ADRs c) Type C ADRs d) Type D ADRs

Last Answer : b) Type B ADRs 

__________ is the common and dose related side effect of salbutamol. a) Decrease in blood pressure b) Muscle tremor c) Central nervous system stimulation d) Hyperglycaemia

Description : __________ is the common and dose related side effect of salbutamol. a) Decrease in blood pressure b) Muscle tremor c) Central nervous system stimulation d) Hyperglycaemia

Last Answer : c) Central nervous system stimulation 

Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics

Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Description : Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

___________ antihypertensive therapy should be avoided in type-1 diabetes mellitus a) ACE inhibitors b) High dose diuretics c) Centrally acting d) calcium channel blockers

Description : ___________ antihypertensive therapy should be avoided in type-1 diabetes mellitus a) ACE inhibitors b) High dose diuretics c) Centrally acting d) calcium channel blockers

Last Answer : c) Centrally acting  

Which of the following would you classify as a pharmacodynamics interaction? a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia b) Antacids reduce the absorption of fluoroquinolones c) Increased bleeding due to cimetidine and warfarin d) Probenecid increases half-life of penicillin

Description : Which of the following would you classify as a pharmacodynamics interaction? a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia b) Antacids reduce the absorption ... Increased bleeding due to cimetidine and warfarin d) Probenecid increases half-life of penicillin

Last Answer : a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia

Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence

Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence

Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia

Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis

Description :  Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis

Last Answer : B. Hypoglycaemia

A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from? a) Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Description : A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/ ... Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Last Answer : d) Overdose toxicity 

Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug reaction? a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic. b) A 22 year old patient with asthma receiving prescriptions for inhalers to relieve and prevent their asthma. c) A 48 year old patient who has hypertension and receives a prescription for an ACE Inhibitor. d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug reaction? a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic. b) A 22 year old patient ... ACE Inhibitor. d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic. 

Last Answer : d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic. 

Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting? a) A patient reports a skin rash after starting a course on amoxicillin capsules. b) A patient reports experiencing dyspepsia when they take their indomethacin capsules. c) A patient complains of a dry irritating cough since they have started taking ramipril. d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting? a) A patient ... started taking ramipril. d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

Last Answer : d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

Patient counselling helps to a) Know chemical structure of drug b) Develop business relations with pharmacist c) Motivate the patient to take medicine for improvement of his/her health status. d) Pass time at old age

Description : Patient counselling helps to a) Know chemical structure of drug b) Develop business relations with pharmacist c) Motivate the patient to take medicine for improvement of his/her health status. d) Pass time at old age

Last Answer : c) Motivate the patient to take medicine for improvement of his/her health status. 

Which of the following is a technique pharmacists can use to humanize themselves to their patients? a) Using the patient's preferred name in conversation b) Delegating as many tasks as possible to an assistant c) Reading the text of a medication bottle verbatim to a patient d) Providing business cards at the desk

Description : Which of the following is a technique pharmacists can use to humanize themselves to their patients? a) Using the patient's preferred name in conversation b) Delegating as many tasks as possible to an ... the text of a medication bottle verbatim to a patient d) Providing business cards at the desk

Last Answer : c) Reading the text of a medication bottle verbatim to a patient 

Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use of interaction? A. Use of Probenecid with Penicillin B. Giving Aspirin with warfarin C. Instructing patient to take levofloxacin with milk or antacid D. Treatment of depression of MAO Inhibitor and Citalopram

Description : Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use of interaction? A. Use of Probenecid with Penicillin B. Giving Aspirin with warfarin C. Instructing patient to take levofloxacin with milk or antacid D. Treatment of depression of MAO Inhibitor and Citalopram

Last Answer : A. Use of Probenecid with Penicillin 

What is informed consent in a clinical trial? a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses c) Fake treatment d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures

Description : What is informed consent in a clinical trial? a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses c) Fake treatment d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures

Last Answer : d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures 

The _______________ is the heart of the patient counselling session A) Preparing for the session. B) Opening the session. C) Counselling content. D) Closing the session.

Description : The _______________ is the heart of the patient counselling session  A) Preparing for the session.  B) Opening the session.  C) Counselling content.  D) Closing the session. 

Last Answer :  C) Counselling content. 

___________ antidiabetic drug is preferred for elderly patient a) Gliclazide b) Glibencamide c) Metformin d) Pioglitazone

Description : ___________ antidiabetic drug is preferred for elderly patient a) Gliclazide b) Glibencamide c) Metformin d) Pioglitazone

Last Answer : a) Gliclazide  

Which of the following responsibility of the clinical pharmacist is in direct patient care area? a) Supervision of drug administration techniques. b) Providing drug information to physicians and nurses. c) Identify drugs brought into the hospital by patients. d) Reviewing of each patient’s drug administration forms periodically to ensure all doses have been administered.

Description : Which of the following responsibility of the clinical pharmacist is in direct patient care area? a) Supervision of drug administration techniques. b) Providing drug information to physicians and ... of each patient's drug administration forms periodically to ensure all doses have been administered.

Last Answer : d) Reviewing of each patient’s drug administration forms periodically to ensure all doses have been administered.

Type I ADR reactions is___________ a) Caused when T-cells bind to a specific antigen b) Caused by tissue injury c) IgE mediated d) Caused by cytotoxic antibodies

Description : Type I ADR reactions is___________ a) Caused when T-cells bind to a specific antigen b) Caused by tissue injury c) IgE mediated d) Caused by cytotoxic antibodies

Last Answer : c) IgE mediated 

A doctor advises a patient to take plenty of citrus fruits, guavas, tomatoes and amlas over a period of two months regularly. What do you think is the complaint of the patient? (a) Softness and pain in bones, bending of vertebral column (b) Gums spongy, swollen and bleed easily (c) Blurred vision, burning and dryness of eye and tongue, cracking of skin of angle of mouth (d) Extreme weakness, swelling and pain in legs, loss of appetite, headache

Description : A doctor advises a patient to take plenty of citrus fruits, guavas, tomatoes and amlas over a period of two months regularly. What do you think is the complaint of the patient? (a) Softness and ... skin of angle of mouth (d) Extreme weakness, swelling and pain in legs, loss of appetite, headache

Last Answer : Ans:(b)

Thiazide diuretics inhibit (A) Carbonic anhydrase (B) Aldosterone secretion (C) ADH secretion (D) Sodium reabsorption in distal tubules

Description : Thiazide diuretics inhibit (A) Carbonic anhydrase (B) Aldosterone secretion (C) ADH secretion (D) Sodium reabsorption in distal tubules

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics

Description : Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency

The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Description : The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Last Answer : C. Cortical diluting segment

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Description : Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C ... in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K

Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Last Answer : B. Calcium

Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Description : Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Last Answer : C. Elderly obese hypertensives

As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action

Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Description : Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Nifedipine

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Description : The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

A specific BRCA1 cancer-predisposing gene mutation seems to occur more frequently among women of which descent? a) Ashkanazi Jewish Expression of the BRCA1 gene is an example of inheritance in the development of breast cancer. b) Mediterranean Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is a common enzyme abnormality that affects millions of people throughout the world, especially those of Mediterranean, South East Asian, African, Middle Eastern, and Near Eastern origin.

Description : A specific BRCA1 cancer-predisposing gene mutation seems to occur more frequently among women of which descent? a) Ashkanazi Jewish Expression of the BRCA1 gene is an example of ... of treatment for tuberculosis) are at significantly increased risk for developing isoniazid-induced hepatitis.

Last Answer : a) Ashkanazi Jewish Expression of the BRCA1 gene is an example of inheritance in the development of breast cancer.

According to Rawlins–Thompson classification Type D ADR includes___________ a) Carcinogenesis b) Bradycardia associated with beta blockers c) Anaphylaxis associated with penicillin d) Opiate withdrawal syndrome

Description : According to Rawlins–Thompson classification Type D ADR includes___________ a) Carcinogenesis b) Bradycardia associated with beta blockers c) Anaphylaxis associated with penicillin d) Opiate withdrawal syndrome

Last Answer : a) Carcinogenesis 

In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended in all type 2 diabetes patients C. Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Description : In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended ... Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Last Answer : D. Both A and C are correct

A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while blood picture and haemoglobin level were improved. What could be the most likely explanation: A. Folic acid was not adequately absorbed resulting in partial response B. Folate therapy has precipitated vitamin B12 deficiency in the neural tissue C. Folate therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Description : A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while ... therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Last Answer : D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week

Description : A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week

Last Answer : C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week

Which of the following statements best describes a lead compound? a) A compound that contains the element lead b) A compound from the research laboratory that is chosen to go forward for preclinical and clinical trials. c) A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest and serves as the starting point for the development of a drug. d) The first compound of a structural class of compounds to reach the market.

Description : Which of the following statements best describes a lead compound? a) A compound that contains the element lead b) A compound from the research laboratory that is chosen to go forward for preclinical and ... of a drug. d) The first compound of a structural class of compounds to reach the market.

Last Answer : c) A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest and serves as the starting point for the development of a drug.

You are asked to compare the cost of four different antibacterial medicines. Which of the following treatment courses is the lowest cost? a) Medicine A costs £17.00 for 28 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet twice a day and the usual treatment duration is 7 days. b) Medicine B costs £30.00 for 100 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet four times a day and the usual treatment duration is 7 days. c) Medicine C costs £20.00 for 25 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet twice a day and the usual treatment duration is 5 days. d) Medicine D costs £25.00 for 14 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet each day and the usual treatment duration is 5 days.

Description : You are asked to compare the cost of four different antibacterial medicines. Which of the following treatment courses is the lowest cost? a) Medicine A costs £17.00 for 28 tablets. The adult dose is one ... 14 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet each day and the usual treatment duration is 5 days.

Last Answer : c) Medicine C costs £20.00 for 25 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet twice a day and the usual treatment duration is 5 days.

GCP are seen in all of the following except a) Phase I trial b) Phase II trial c) Preclinical trials d) Phase IV trial

Description : GCP are seen in all of the following except a) Phase I trial b) Phase II trial c) Preclinical trials d) Phase IV trial

Last Answer : c) Preclinical trials 

Pharmacovigilance is done for monitoring of a) Drug price b) Unethical practises c) Drug safety d) Pharmacy students

Description : Pharmacovigilance is done for monitoring of a) Drug price b) Unethical practises c) Drug safety d) Pharmacy students

Last Answer : c) Drug safety 

When tetracycline is given with antacids the absorption of tetracycline ----------------. a) Increases b) Decreases c) Minimally altered d) Not altered at all

Description : When tetracycline is given with antacids the absorption of tetracycline ----------------. a) Increases b) Decreases c) Minimally altered d) Not altered at all

Last Answer : b) Decreases 

Absorption of Griseofulvin increases with --------------diet. a) Carbohydrate b) Fatty c) protein d) vitamin

Description : Absorption of Griseofulvin increases with --------------diet. a) Carbohydrate b) Fatty c) protein d) vitamin

Last Answer : b) Fatty 

Gary baby syndrome occur in new born with a) Tetracycline b) Chloramphenicol c) Penicillin d) Erythromycin

Description : Gary baby syndrome occur in new born with a) Tetracycline b) Chloramphenicol c) Penicillin d) Erythromycin

Last Answer : b) Chloramphenicol 

Which of the following drug is not needed to be TDM? a) Carbamazepine. b) Penicillin. c) Digoxin. d) Gentamicin.

Description : Which of the following drug is not needed to be TDM? a) Carbamazepine. b) Penicillin. c) Digoxin. d) Gentamicin.

Last Answer : b) Penicillin. 

Which of the following terms does not describe an Adverse Drug Reaction? a) Idiosyncrasy b) Anaphylaxis c) Teratogenic effect d) Placebo effect

Description : Which of the following terms does not describe an Adverse Drug Reaction? a) Idiosyncrasy b) Anaphylaxis c) Teratogenic effect d) Placebo effect

Last Answer : d) Placebo effect