Which of the following is not a sulfonylurea but acts by analogous mechanism to bring about quick and brief insulin release that is useful for normalizing meal time glycaemic excursions in type 2 diabetes mellitus: A. Glimepiride B. Miglitol C. Repaglinide D. Rosiglitazone

Which of the following is not a sulfonylurea but acts
by analogous mechanism to bring about quick and
brief insulin release that is useful for normalizing
meal time glycaemic excursions in type 2 diabetes
mellitus:
A. Glimepiride
B. Miglitol
C. Repaglinide
D. Rosiglitazone
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Repaglinide
by

Related questions

The thiazolidinediones are mainly used as: A. Sole drug in type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Sole drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Addon drug to insulin in type 1 diabetes mellitus (p. 250) 18.33 1 8 . 3 3 C 18.34 1 8 . 3 4 B 18.35 1 8 . 3 5 D 18.36 1 8 . 3 6 C

Description : The thiazolidinediones are mainly used as: A. Sole drug in type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Sole drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Addon drug to insulin in type 1 ... 18.34 1 8 . 3 4 B 18.35 1 8 . 3 5 D 18.36 1 8 . 3 6 C

Last Answer : C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus

Which of the following is not a specific indication for the more expensive monocomponent/human insulins: A. Insulin resistance B. Pregnant diabetic C. Sulfonylurea maintained diabetic posted for surgery D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not a specific indication for the more expensive monocomponent/human insulins: A. Insulin resistance B. Pregnant diabetic C. Sulfonylurea maintained diabetic posted for surgery D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers blood glucose in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus

Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the drug which tends to reverse insulin resistance by increasing cellular glucose transporters: A. Glibenclamide B. Rosiglitazone C. Acarbose D. Prednisolone

Description : Select the drug which tends to reverse insulin resistance by increasing cellular glucose transporters: A. Glibenclamide B. Rosiglitazone C. Acarbose D. Prednisolone

Last Answer : B. Rosiglitazone

The present status of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus is: A. They are the first choice drug in all cases B. They should be prescribed only if the patient refuses insulin injections C. They are used only in type I diabetes mellitus D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Description : The present status of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus is: A. They are the first choice drug in all cases B. They should be prescribed only if the patient refuses insulin injections C. ... I diabetes mellitus D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Last Answer : D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Description : Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Description : Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

Description : The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

Last Answer : B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day

In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Description : In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Last Answer : A. Prednisolone

Sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics act by: A. Reducing intestinal absorption of glucose B. Increasing insulin secretion from pancreas C. Reversing down-regulation of insulin receptors D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics act by: A. Reducing intestinal absorption of glucose B. Increasing insulin secretion from pancreas C. Reversing down-regulation of insulin receptors D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Gabapentin acts: A. As GABAA agonist B. As precursor of GABA C. By enhancing GABA release D. By GABA independent mechanism

Description : Gabapentin acts: A. As GABAA agonist B. As precursor of GABA C. By enhancing GABA release D. By GABA independent mechanism

Last Answer : C. By enhancing GABA release

The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes B. Hyperinsulinemia C. Lactic acidosis D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Description : The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes B. Hyperinsulinemia C. Lactic acidosis D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Last Answer : D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

Description : Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose ... islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 2 diabetes do not demonstrate islet cell antibodies.

Last Answer : a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 1 diabetes (previously referred to as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM])? a) Presence of islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 1 diabetes often have islet cell antibodies.

Description : Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 1 diabetes (previously referred to as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM])? a) Presence of islet cell antibodies ... Requirement for oral hypoglycemic agents Individuals with Type 1 diabetes need insulin to preserve life.

Last Answer : a) Presence of islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 1 diabetes often have islet cell antibodies.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about diabetes mellitus? A) Type II diabetes is much more common than type I. B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II diabetes. C) Type I diabetes occurs as a result of destruction of the insulin-producing cells. D) One method of treating type II diabetes is exercise and a low-fat, low-sugar diet. E) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the urine.

Description : Which of the following statements is NOT true about diabetes mellitus? A) Type II diabetes is much more common than type I. B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II ... -sugar diet. E) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the urine.

Last Answer : B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II diabetes.

Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment

Prolonged lithium therapy can cause: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Goiter C. Parkinsonism D. Gout

Description : Prolonged lithium therapy can cause: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Goiter C. Parkinsonism D. Gout

Last Answer : B. Goiter

Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Description : Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol

The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Description : The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Last Answer : A. Are more potent

Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Description : Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Last Answer : A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Description : Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Last Answer : A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Hypoglycaemic coma can occur (A) In untreated diabetes mellitus (B) In starvation (C) After overdose of oral hypoglycaemic drugs (D) After overdose of insulin

Description : Hypoglycaemic coma can occur (A) In untreated diabetes mellitus (B) In starvation (C) After overdose of oral hypoglycaemic drugs (D) After overdose of insulin

Last Answer : Answer : D

Diabetes mellitus can occur due to all of the following except (A) Deficient insulin secretion (B) Tumour of β−cells (C) Decrease in number of insulin receptors (D) Formation of insulin antibodies

Description : Diabetes mellitus can occur due to all of the following except (A) Deficient insulin secretion (B) Tumour of β−cells (C) Decrease in number of insulin receptors (D) Formation of insulin antibodies

Last Answer : Answer : B

The rate of HMP shunt reactions is (A) Increased by Insulin (B) Increased in diabetes mellitus (C) Increased by glucagons (D) Increased in starvation

Description : The rate of HMP shunt reactions is (A) Increased by Insulin (B) Increased in diabetes mellitus (C) Increased by glucagons (D) Increased in starvation

Last Answer : Answer : A

Obesity generally reflects excess intake of energy and is often associated with the development of (A) Nervousness (B) Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (C) Hepatitis (D) Colon cancer

Description : Obesity generally reflects excess intake of energy and is often associated with the development of (A) Nervousness (B) Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (C) Hepatitis (D) Colon cancer

Last Answer : Answer : B

Intensive insulin therapy: A. Prevents the aggressive development of atherosclerosis in diabetic patients. B. Is not associated with unawareness of hypoglycemia. C. Improves peripheral neuropathy. D. Improves established retinopathy and nephropathy. E. Is indicated in all patients with non–insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM).

Description : Intensive insulin therapy: A. Prevents the aggressive development of atherosclerosis in diabetic patients. B. Is not associated with unawareness of hypoglycemia. C. Improves peripheral neuropathy. D. ... . E. Is indicated in all patients with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM).

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Intensive insulin therapy is indicated in patients with IDDM who can actively participate in their own management and the attainment of the goals set for ... or prevents progression of these complications; however, better glucose control may improve peripheral neuropathy

Which of the following conditions may be detectable by growth monitoring? 1) Hyperthyroidism 2) Hypothyroidism 3) Pseudohypoparathyroidism 4) XYY Syndrome 5) Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following conditions may be detectable by growth monitoring? 1) Hyperthyroidism 2) Hypothyroidism 3) Pseudohypoparathyroidism 4) XYY Syndrome 5) Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : Answers-2

A 16 year old male with a day history of malaise, weakness and vomiting. He was diagnosed with Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus 3 years prviously. Which ONE of the following supports a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis: 1) Abdominal pain at onset 2) A serum bicarbonate of 10 mmol/l 3) A serum glucose 14 mmol/l 4) Decreased appetite in the past few days 5) Shallow respirations

Description : A 16 year old male with a day history of malaise, weakness and vomiting. He was diagnosed with Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus 3 years prviously. Which ONE of the following supports a diagnosis of ... serum glucose 14 mmol/l 4) Decreased appetite in the past few days 5) Shallow respirations

Last Answer : Answers-2 a-An unusual but recognised feature particularly in children. However does not support a diagnosis of DKA. b-Suggests metabolic acidosis. c-'Normoglycaemic DKA' can occur and a glucose ... anorexia. e-Respiratory compensation leads to rapid deep (Kussmaul's) breathing. (Dr Mike Mulcahy)

A man suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks water more frequently as he has to eliminate from the blood extra (1) glucose (2) insulin (4) glucagon (4) salt

Description : A man suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks water more frequently as he has to eliminate from the blood extra (1) glucose (2) insulin (4) glucagon (4) salt

Last Answer : (1) glucose Explanation: The diabetic person has higher sugar in blood. Glucose is a form of sugar.

The following occur in untreated insulin dependent diabetes mellitus: a. diuresis b. decreased plasma amino acid c. increased plasma fatty acid d. ketonuria

Description : The following occur in untreated insulin dependent diabetes mellitus: a. diuresis b. decreased plasma amino acid c. increased plasma fatty acid d. ketonuria

Last Answer : ketonuria

Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency? (a) Luteinising - Failure of ovulation hormone (b) Insulin - Diabetes insipidus (c) Thyroxine - Tetany (d) Parathyroid - Diabetes mellitus hormone

Description : Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency? (a) Luteinising - Failure of ovulation hormone (b) Insulin - Diabetes insipidus (c) Thyroxine - Tetany (d) Parathyroid - Diabetes mellitus hormone

Last Answer : (a) Luteinising - Failure of ovulation hormone

Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? (a) Glucagon – Beta cells (source) (b) Somatostatin – Delta cells (source) (c) Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion) (d) Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease

Description : Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? (a) Glucagon – Beta cells (source) (b) Somatostatin – Delta cells (source) (c) Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion) (d) Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease

Last Answer : (a) Glucagon – Beta cells (source)

Match the following hormones with their respective disease. (A) Insulin (i) Addison’s disease (B) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus (C) Corticoids (iii)Acromegaly (D) Growth hormone (iv) Goitre (v) Diabetes mellitus Select the correct option. (A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (b) (v) (i) (ii) (iii) (c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (d) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)

Description : Match the following hormones with their respective disease. (A) Insulin (i) Addison's disease (B) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus (C) Corticoids (iii)Acromegaly (D) Growth hormone (iv) Goitre (v) Diabetes mellitus Select the correct option ... (iii) (c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (d) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)

Last Answer : (d) (v) (iv) (i) (iii

Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid excretion C. It causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Description : Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid ... causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended in all type 2 diabetes patients C. Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Description : In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended ... Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Last Answer : D. Both A and C are correct

The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and LH release C. Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Description : The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and ... Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Last Answer : B. Suppression of FSH and LH release

Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Description : Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect C. It can inhibit insulin release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect

Glucagon release from pancreas is stimulated by: A. High blood glucose level B. Insulin C. Somatostatin D. Adrenaline

Description : Glucagon release from pancreas is stimulated by: A. High blood glucose level B. Insulin C. Somatostatin D. Adrenaline

Last Answer : D. Adrenaline

The 1st phase of insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmented by: A. Glibenclamide B. Metformin C. Nateglinide D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : The 1st phase of insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmented by: A. Glibenclamide B. Metformin C. Nateglinide D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : C. Nateglinide

Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmented by the following except: A. Ketone bodies B. Glucagon C. Vagal stimulation D. Alfa adrenergic agonists

Description : Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmented by the following except: A. Ketone bodies B. Glucagon C. Vagal stimulation D. Alfa adrenergic agonists

Last Answer : D. Alfa adrenergic agonist

16.6 Somatostatin inhibits the release of: A. Growth hormone B. Insulin C. Thyrotropin D. All of the above

Description : 16.6 Somatostatin inhibits the release of: A. Growth hormone B. Insulin C. Thyrotropin D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or blood pressure C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Description : Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or ... C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery

Metformin acts by: A. Releasing insulin from pancreas B. Suppressing gluconeogenesis and glucose output from liver

Description : Metformin acts by: A. Releasing insulin from pancreas B. Suppressing gluconeogenesis and glucose output from liver

Last Answer : B. Suppressing gluconeogenesis and glucose output from liver

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

___________ drug can cause lactic acidosis. a) Metformin b) Pioglitazone c) Repaglinide d) Glibenclamide

Description : ___________ drug can cause lactic acidosis. a) Metformin b) Pioglitazone c) Repaglinide d) Glibenclamide

Last Answer : a) Metformin  

What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus? -Biology

Description : What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus? -Biology

Last Answer : answer:

What about type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Description : What about type 2 diabetes mellitus? 

Last Answer : Most of the patients belong to this type. Here circulating insulin level is normal, but there is a relative insulin deficiency. It is commonly seen in individuals above 40 years. These patients are less prone to developing ketosis.