Description : In Vitamin D poisoning (hyper-vitaminosis) (A) Both serum and urinary “Ca” (B) The serum Ca is low and urinary calcium high (C) The serum “Ca” is increased and urinary “Ca” is normal (D) Both serum and urinary “Ca” are low
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Oral contraceptive use increases the risk of occurrence of the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Leg vein thrombosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Gall stones
Last Answer : C. Endometrial carcinoma
Description : Selective inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis by low dose aspirin therapy might retard the progression of: A. Pregnancy induced hypertension B. Steroid induced hypertension C. Renal hypertension D. Malignant hypertension
Last Answer : A. Pregnancy induced hypertension
Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed
Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules
Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients
Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response
Description : Which of the following may be responsible for a hypokalaemic hypertension 1) Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia 2) Barter's syndrome 3) Diabetic nephropathy 4) Liddle's syndrome 5) Type IV renal tubular acidosis
Last Answer : Answers-4 Liddle's syndrome is typically asscoiated with hypokalaemic hypertension and low renin and aldosterone concentrations - the so called pseudo-hyperaldosteronism. Barter's syndrome is associated ... , which may also be produced with diabetic nephropathy. Hence hyperkalaemia is more typical.
Description : Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? ... Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.
Last Answer : a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis.
Description : Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction is contraindicated in the presence of the following except: A. Peptic ulcer B. Ventricular extrasystoles C. History of recent trauma D. Severe hypertension
Last Answer : B. Ventricular extrasystoles
Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril
Last Answer : B. Methyldopa
Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class
Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately
Description : Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid ... causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect
Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation
Description : Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Prazosin C. Clonidine D. Lisinopri
Last Answer : C. Clonidine
Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug
Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension
Description : Furosemide is to be preferred over hydrochlorothiazide when hypertension is accompanied by: A. Asthma B. Hyperuricaemia C. Diabetes D. Congestive heart failure
Last Answer : D. Congestive heart failure
Description : Shortacting nifedipine formulation is not recommended now for treatment of hypertension because: A. It tends to increase heart rate and cardiac work B. It invokes pronounced reflex sympathetic discharges C. It can impair haemodynamics in patients with diastolic dysfunction D. All of the above
Description : Digitalis is most suitable for treatment of CHF when it is due to: A. Cor pulmonale B. Arterio-venous shunt C. Thiamine deficiency D. Long-standing uncontrolled hypertension
Last Answer : D. Long-standing uncontrolled hypertensio
Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C
Description : The most common and important undesirable effect of injectable contraceptive depot medroxyprogesterone acetate is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding C. Venous thrombosis D. Hypertension
Last Answer : B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding
Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol
Last Answer : A. Pindolol
Description : The most important risk in the use of sumatriptan for treatment of migraine is: A. Precipitation of seizures B. Precipitation of psychosis C. Development of hypertension D. Coronary vasospasm
Last Answer : D. Coronary vasospasm
Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin
Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine
Description : A child presented with polyuria, weakness and fever. On the basis of investigations he was labelled to be suffering from Fancony syndrome. A history of taking some old left over antibiotic ... What could have been the antibiotic: A. Tetracycline B. Chloramphenicol C. Ampicillin D. Cephalexi
Last Answer : A. Tetracycline
Description : A 70-year-old patient presented with weakness, tiredness and muscle cramps. The ECG showed Q-T prolongation, flattening of T wave and occasional A-V block. His serum K+ was low (2.8 mEq ... could be responsible for the above condition: A. Bisacodyl B. Liquid paraffin C. Methylcellulose D. Bran
Last Answer : A. Bisacodyl
Description : Choose the most suitable antihypertensive drug for a 45-year-old male company executive who has a travelling job. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, and he is a diabetic ... → rebound hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide: May worsen diabetes; more likely to produce weakness, fatigue and impotenc
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis
Last Answer : C. Histamine release
Description : Allopurinol is indicated in the following category of chronic gout patients: A. Over producers of uric acid B. Under excretors of uric acid C. Those with tophi and/or renal urate stones D. All of the above
Description : Estrogen therapy in postmenopausal women has been implicated in increasing the risk of the following disorders except: A. Gall stones B. Osteoporosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Breast cancer
Last Answer : B. Osteoporosis
Description : Location is a unique feature of Mobile Marketing because ____________. A. It enables brands to hyper-target their customers. B. It allows you to customize the marketing messages to suit the needs ... particular location. D. You can run different campaigns based on the location of the mobile use
Last Answer : B. It allows you to customize the marketing messages to suit the needs of users of a particular location
Description : Location is a unique feature of Mobile Marketing because ____________. A. It enables brands to hyper-target their customers. B. It allows you to customize the marketing messages to suit the needs ... location. D. You can run different campaigns based on the location of the mobile user.
Last Answer : B. It allows you to customize the marketing messages to suit the needs of users of a particular location.
Description : Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them
Last Answer : D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them
Description : Corticosteroids are absolutely contraindicated in the following type of tuberculosis: A. Miliary B. Meningeal C. Intestinal D. Renal
Last Answer : C. Intestinal
Description : The characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is: A. Hepatitis B. Visual defects C. Vestibular disturbance D. Renal damage
Last Answer : B. Visual defects
Description : he most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is: A. Tetracycline B. Demeclocycline C. Oxytetracycline D. Doxycycline
Last Answer : D. Doxycycline
Description : Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
Last Answer : D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Tobramycin D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : C. Tobramycin
Description : A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine
Last Answer : A. Epoetin
Description : Recombinant human erythropoietin is indicated for: A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Anaemia in patients of thalassemia D. Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients
Last Answer : D. Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients
Description : Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure
Last Answer : C. Pernicious anaemia
Description : The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine
Last Answer : B. Hydrochlorothiazide
Description : The following tissue is most sensitive to vasopressin: A. Renal collecting ducts B. Intestinal smooth muscle C. Vascular smooth muscle D. Uterus
Last Answer : A. Renal collecting ducts
Description : Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts
Last Answer : B. Increased peristalsis of gut
Description : The primary mechanism by which antidiuretic hormone reduces urine volume is: A. Decrease in glomerular filtration rate B. Decreased renal blood flow C. Decreased water permeability of descending limb of loop of Henle D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells
Last Answer : D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells
Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema
Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension
Description : Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above
Description : he current therapeutic indication of acetazolamide is: A. Congestive heart failure B. Renal insufficiency C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Glaucoma
Last Answer : D. Glaucoma
Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate
Last Answer : B. Calcium
Description : Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell: A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter B. Na+-Cl– symporter C. Na+-H+ antiporter D. Na+ K+ ATPase
Last Answer : A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter
Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide
Last Answer : D. Furosemide