Select the antimetabolite which is toxic to Leishmania but not to mammalian cells: A. Allopurinol B. Cytarabine C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. 6-Thioguanine

Select the antimetabolite which is toxic to Leishmania but not to mammalian cells:
A. Allopurinol
B. Cytarabine
C. 6-Mercaptopurine
D. 6-Thioguanine
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Allopurino
by

Related questions

Allopurinol does not inhibit the metabolism of: A. 6-Mercaptopurine B. 6-Thioguanine C. Azathioprine D. Theophylline

Description : Allopurinol does not inhibit the metabolism of: A. 6-Mercaptopurine B. 6-Thioguanine C. Azathioprine D. Theophylline

Last Answer : B. 6-Thioguanine

Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself, but its metabolite alloxanthine is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Description : Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself ... D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Last Answer : B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in organ transplantation as a suppressor of immunologic rejection of grafts is (A) Theophylline (B) Cytarabine (C) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (D) 6-Mercaptopurine

Description : A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in organ transplantation as a suppressor of immunologic rejection of grafts is (A) Theophylline (B) Cytarabine (C) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (D) 6-Mercaptopurine

Last Answer : Answer : D

A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in the chemotherapy of cancer and viral infections is (A) Arabinosyl cytosine (B) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) 6-Thioguanine

Description : A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in the chemotherapy of cancer and viral infections is (A) Arabinosyl cytosine (B) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) 6-Thioguanine

Last Answer : Answer : A

Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and autoimmune diseases, but not in cancers: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Cyclosporine C. Methotrexate D. 6-Mercaptopurine

Description : Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and autoimmune diseases, but not in cancers: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Cyclosporine C. Methotrexate D. 6-Mercaptopurine

Last Answer : B. Cyclosporine

The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine

Description : The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine

Last Answer : B. Vincristine

The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Description : The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Last Answer : D. Cisplatin

Choose the correct statement about amantadine: A. It is an antimetabolite used for viral infections B. It prevents penetration of the virus into the host cell C. It is used to protect high risk subjects during an influenza A2 epidemic D. Concurrent administration of amantadine prevents antibody response to influenza vaccine

Description : Choose the correct statement about amantadine: A. It is an antimetabolite used for viral infections B. It prevents penetration of the virus into the host cell C. It is used ... during an influenza A2 epidemic D. Concurrent administration of amantadine prevents antibody response to influenza vaccine

Last Answer : C. It is used to protect high risk subjects during an influenza A2 epidemic

Trimethoprim inhibits bacteria without affecting mammalian cells because: A. It does not penetrate mammalian cells B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate reductase enzyme C. It inhibits bacterial folate synthetase as well as dihydrofolate reductase enzymes D. All of the above

Description : Trimethoprim inhibits bacteria without affecting mammalian cells because: A. It does not penetrate mammalian cells B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate ... bacterial folate synthetase as well as dihydrofolate reductase enzymes D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate reductase enzyme

Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide

Description : Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Allopurinol

Allopurinol lowers the plasma concentration of: A. Hypoxanthine B. Xanthine C. Uric acid D. All of the above

Description : Allopurinol lowers the plasma concentration of: A. Hypoxanthine B. Xanthine C. Uric acid D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Uric acid

Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out tetracyclines C. Protein synthesizing apparatus of host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out ... host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Select the drug which is used in chronic gout but is not uricosuric: A. Probenecid B. Phenylbutazone C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Allopurinol

Description : Select the drug which is used in chronic gout but is not uricosuric: A. Probenecid B. Phenylbutazone C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Allopurinol

Last Answer : D. Allopurinol

Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Description : Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Last Answer : C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects

Select the first choice drug for acute gout: A. Cochicine B. Indomethacin C. Allopurinol D. Dexamethasone

Description : Select the first choice drug for acute gout: A. Cochicine B. Indomethacin C. Allopurinol D. Dexamethasone

Last Answer : B. Indomethacin

Conversion of formylglycinamide ribosyl5-phosphate to formyl-glycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate is inhibited by (A) Azaserine (B) Diazonorleucine (C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) Mycophenolic acid

Description : Conversion of formylglycinamide ribosyl5-phosphate to formyl-glycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate is inhibited by (A) Azaserine (B) Diazonorleucine (C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) Mycophenolic acid

Last Answer : Answer : A

A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood pressure and sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole

Description : A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal ... drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole

Last Answer : C. Loperamide

Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound

Gammaxine is an antimetabolite of (A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin (C) Pyridoxin (D) Inositol

Description : Gammaxine is an antimetabolite of (A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin (C) Pyridoxin (D) Inositol

Last Answer : Answer : D

Gammaxane is an antimetabolite of (A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin (C) Pyridoxin (D) Inositol

Description : Gammaxane is an antimetabolite of (A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin (C) Pyridoxin (D) Inositol

Last Answer : Answer : D

Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure than after it C. It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity

Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Description : Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

Pentamidine should be used to treat Kala azar only when sodium stibogluconate has failed or is not tolerated because: A. It achieves lower cure rates B. It is more toxic C. It requires a longer course of treatment D. Relapses are more common with it

Description : Pentamidine should be used to treat Kala azar only when sodium stibogluconate has failed or is not tolerated because: A. It achieves lower cure rates B. It is more toxic C. It requires a longer course of treatment D. Relapses are more common with it

Last Answer : B. It is more toxic

Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not active against P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain

Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Its schizontocidal action is slow

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has practically replaced the conventional regimens because: A. It is more efficatious B. It is less toxic C. It has yielded higher completion rates D. All of the above are correc

Description : The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has practically replaced the conventional regimens because: A. It is more efficatious B. It is less toxic C. It has yielded higher completion rates D. All of the above are correc

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Indicate the attribute that is common to both polymyxin B and bacitracin: A. Both are active against gram negative bacteria B. Both are too toxic for systemic use C. Both act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis D. Both a

Description : Indicate the attribute that is common to both polymyxin B and bacitracin: A. Both are active against gram negative bacteria B. Both are too toxic for systemic use C. Both act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis D. Both a

Last Answer : B. Both are too toxic for systemic use

Which aminoglycoside antibiotic causes more hearing loss than vestibular disturbance as toxic effect: A. Streptomycin B. Gentamicin C. Kanamycin D. Sisomicin

Description : Which aminoglycoside antibiotic causes more hearing loss than vestibular disturbance as toxic effect: A. Streptomycin B. Gentamicin C. Kanamycin D. Sisomicin

Last Answer : C. Kanamycin

The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with chloramphenicol C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Description : The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with ... C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Last Answer : D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Ethanol is used in methanol poisoning because it: A. Antagonises the actions of methanol B. Stimulates the metabolism of methanol and reduces its blood level C. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite D. Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methano

Description : Ethanol is used in methanol poisoning because it: A. Antagonises the actions of methanol B. Stimulates the metabolism of methanol and reduces its blood level C. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite D. Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methano

Last Answer : C. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite

Serum TSH levels are high in most cases of: A. Myxoedema B. Grave’s disease C. Carcinoma thyroid D. Toxic nodular goiter

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Last Answer : A. Increases vascularity

.19 Serum TSH levels are high in most cases of: A. Myxoedema B. Grave’s disease C. Carcinoma thyroid D. Toxic nodular goiter

Description : .19 Serum TSH levels are high in most cases of: A. Myxoedema B. Grave’s disease C. Carcinoma thyroid D. Toxic nodular goiter

Last Answer : A. Myxoedema

N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because: A. It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex B. It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of paracetamol C. It is a free radical scavenger D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

Description : N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because: A. It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex B. It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of ... scavenger D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

Last Answer : D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished and ascitis again appeared. Select the measure to reinduce diuresis: A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose to 100 mg twice daily B. Add acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily

An alternate substrate for orotate phosphoribosyl transferase is (A) Allopurinol (B) Xanthine (C) Hypoxanthine (D) Adenine

Description : An alternate substrate for orotate phosphoribosyl transferase is (A) Allopurinol (B) Xanthine (C) Hypoxanthine (D) Adenine

Last Answer : Answer : D

All of the following statements about allopurinol are true except (A) It is a structural analogue of uric acid (B) It can prevent uric acid stones in the kidneys (C) It increases the urinary excretion of xanthine and hypoxanthine (D) It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

Description : All of the following statements about allopurinol are true except (A) It is a structural analogue of uric acid (B) It can prevent uric acid stones in the kidneys (C) It increases the urinary excretion of xanthine and hypoxanthine (D) It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

Last Answer : Answer : A

A substrate for enzymes of pyrimidine nucleotide biosynthesis is (A) Allopurinol (B) Tetracylin (C) Chloramphenicol (D) Puromycin

Description : A substrate for enzymes of pyrimidine nucleotide biosynthesis is (A) Allopurinol (B) Tetracylin (C) Chloramphenicol (D) Puromycin

Last Answer : Answer : A

Carbonic anhydrase is competitively inhibited by (A) Allopurinol (B) Acetazolamide (C) Aminopterin (D) Neostigmine

Description : Carbonic anhydrase is competitively inhibited by (A) Allopurinol (B) Acetazolamide (C) Aminopterin (D) Neostigmine

Last Answer : Answer : B

A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is (A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinol (C) Colchicine (D) Probenecid

Description : A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is (A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinol (C) Colchicine (D) Probenecid

Last Answer : B

Which of the following drugs may be effective in the treatment of gouty arthritis by acting by two separate and distinct mechanisms? (a) Allopurinol (b) Probenecid (c) Colchicine (d) Indomethacin (e) Sulfinpyrazone

Description : Which of the following drugs may be effective in the treatment of gouty arthritis by acting by two separate and distinct mechanisms? (a) Allopurinol (b) Probenecid (c) Colchicine (d) Indomethacin (e) Sulfinpyrazone

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following compounds is most likely to lower circulating levels of leukotrienes? (a) Zileuton (b) Montelukast (c) Carprofen (d) Aspirin (e) Allopurinol

Description : Which of the following compounds is most likely to lower circulating levels of leukotrienes? (a) Zileuton (b) Montelukast (c) Carprofen (d) Aspirin (e) Allopurinol

Last Answer : Ans: A

Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar

Description : Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar

Last Answer : C. Acute gouty arthritis

Allopurinol is indicated in the following category of chronic gout patients: A. Over producers of uric acid B. Under excretors of uric acid C. Those with tophi and/or renal urate stones D. All of the above

Description : Allopurinol is indicated in the following category of chronic gout patients: A. Over producers of uric acid B. Under excretors of uric acid C. Those with tophi and/or renal urate stones D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is most appropriate: A. No regular medication. Treat attacks of acute gout when they occur with naproxen. B. Regular long-term treatment with naproxen C. Regular long-term treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Description : A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is ... treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Last Answer : D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide

Description : Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Allopurinol

A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is (A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinol (C) Colchicine (D) Probenecid

Description : A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is (A) Aspirin (B) Allopurinol (C) Colchicine (D) Probenecid

Last Answer : (B) Allopurinol

Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone

Description : Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone

Last Answer : D. Furazolidone

Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Description : Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine