Description : Select the antimetabolite which is toxic to Leishmania but not to mammalian cells: A. Allopurinol B. Cytarabine C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. 6-Thioguanine
Last Answer : A. Allopurino
Description : Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin
Description : A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in the chemotherapy of cancer and viral infections is (A) Arabinosyl cytosine (B) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) 6-Thioguanine
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in organ transplantation as a suppressor of immunologic rejection of grafts is (A) Theophylline (B) Cytarabine (C) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (D) 6-Mercaptopurine
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs
Last Answer : B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression
Description : Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and autoimmune diseases, but not in cancers: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Cyclosporine C. Methotrexate D. 6-Mercaptopurine
Last Answer : B. Cyclosporine
Description : The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin
Last Answer : D. Cisplatin
Description : Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : B. Allopurinol
Description : Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself ... D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase
Last Answer : B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase
Description : Allopurinol lowers the plasma concentration of: A. Hypoxanthine B. Xanthine C. Uric acid D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Uric acid
Description : A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : D. Erythromycin
Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The following drug is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility: A. Cyclandelate B. Theophylline C. Pentoxiphylline D. Nicotinic acid
Last Answer : C. Pentoxiphylline
Description : The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin
Last Answer : A. Hydrochlorothiazide
Description : The following is a competitive type of enzyme inhibitor: A. Acetazolamide B. Disulfiram C. Physostigmine D. Theophylline
Last Answer : C. Physostigmine
Description : Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child who suffers from exercise induced asthma: A. Oral salbutamol B. Oral theophylline C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate D. Inhaled salmeterol
Last Answer : C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate
Description : Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in: A. Smokers B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Those receiving erythromycin D. Those receiving cimetidine
Last Answer : A. Smokers
Description : Choose the correct statement about theophylline: A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin B. Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers C. It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP D. Its plasma halflife is longer in children compared to that in adults
Last Answer : A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin
Description : The following antiasthma drug is not a bronchodilator: A. Ipratropium bromide B. Theophylline C. Formoterol D. Sodium cromoglycate
Last Answer : D. Sodium cromoglycate
Description : Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Phenobarbitone B. Propranolol C. Phenylbutazone D. Theophylline
Last Answer : B. Propranolol
Description : Which of the following drugs inhibits theophylline metabolism and raises its plasma concentration: A. Phenytoin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Levofloxacin D. Rifampicin
Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Which of the following agents and dosage regimens is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered sensitive to aspirin (experiences bronchospasm with use)? ... once a week (d) Azathioprine, 75 mg daily (e) Cyclophosphamide, 100 mg daily
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Description : The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is ... the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias
Last Answer : C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis
Description : Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out ... host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both A' and C' are correct
Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria
Last Answer : B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
Description : Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae
Last Answer : D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae
Description : The opioid antidiarrhoeal drugs act by the following mechanism(s): A. They relax the intestinal smooth muscle B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis C. They promote clearance of intestinal pathogens Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis
Description : The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit
Last Answer : B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa
Description : Histamine H2 blockers attenuate the gastric secretory response to acetylcholine and pentagastrin as well because: A. H2 blockers block gastric mucosal cholinergic and gastrin receptors as well B. H2 ... acetylcholine and gastrin all act through the phospholipase C-IP3:DAG pathway in gastric mucosa
Last Answer : C. Acetylcholine and gastrin act partly by releasing histamine in gastric mucosa
Description : Choose the drug which alters surface receptors on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extracorporeal circulation: A. Dipyridamole B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Heparin
Last Answer : B. Ticlopidine
Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct
Description : The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation ... active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro
Last Answer : C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant
Description : he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and ... of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa
Last Answer : B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombi
Description : The following diuretic acts on the luminal membrane of distal tubule and collecting ducts to inhibit electrogenic Na+ reabsorption so that K+ excretion is diminished and bicarbonate excretion is enhanced: A. Xipamide B. Isosorbide C. Triamterene D. Spironolactone
Last Answer : C. Triamterene
Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori
Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect
Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy
Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property
Description : Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine
Last Answer : A. Sertraline
Description : Sodium valproate has been shown to: A. Prolong neuronal Na+ channel inactivation B. Attenuate ‘T’ type Ca2+ current in neurones C. Inhibit degradation of GABA by GABA-transaminase D. All of the above
Description : Transdermal estradiol differs from oral estrogen therapy in that it: A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors B. Does not inhibit FSH secretion C. Does not affect vaginal cytology D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors
Description : For limiting cerebral edema due to brain tumour, the preferred corticosteroids are betamethasone/dexamethasone because: A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention B. They are more potent C. They can be administered intravenously D. They inhibit brain tumours
Last Answer : A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention
Description : The aim of iodine therapy before subtotal thyroidectomy in Grave’s disease is: A. To render the patient euthyroid B. To restore the iodine content of the thyroid gland C. To inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine into triiodothyronine D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland
Last Answer : D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland
Description : Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine
Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine
Description : ntithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues
Last Answer : A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis
Description : Antithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues
Last Answer : . Inhibit thyroxine synthesis
Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor
Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
Description : The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins
Last Answer : C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients