Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.
Description : Assertion `:-` Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis of many metabolic disorder. ltbr. Reason `:-` Glycosuria is indicative of disabetes insip
Last Answer : Assertion `:-` Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis of many metabolic disorder. ltbr. Reason `: ... D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.
Description : A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Congenital dacryocystitis b. Interstitial keratitis c. Keratoconus d. Buphthalmos
Last Answer : ANSWER: D
Description : A 36-year-old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted to hospital with malaise, chills and high fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of gramnegative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is ... (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin (d) Imipenem plus cilastatin (e) Ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Which one is zoonotic A. Babesiosis B. Theileriosis C. Anaplasmosis D. All of these
Last Answer : Anaplasmosis
Description : Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan? (a) Babesiosis (b) Blastomycosis (c) Syphilis (d) Influenza
Last Answer : (a) Babesiosis
Description : Babesiosis is carried by.___ and infects___________ a. Mosquitoes; Rbcs b. Fleas; The Kidneys c. Ticks; Rbcs d. Mosquitoes; The Liver
Last Answer : c. Ticks; Rbcs
Description : diffuse abdominal pain , bleeding per rectum and fever 38.3 c , preceded by urinary infection 3 weeks back treated with AB , diagnosis : Ischemic colitis Amoebic colitis Pseudomembranous colitis
Last Answer : Pseudomembranous colitis
Description : A child presents to you with a sore throat, fever and joint swelling; the MOST probable diagnosis is: A. Rheumatic fever B. Rheumatic arthritis C. Osteoarthritis
Last Answer : A. Rheumatic fever
Description : A physician refers a nine years-old boy to you to confirm diagnosis. The boy has a fever of 40°C and coughing. When you focus your light into his eyes he turns away. Intra-orally there are white ... by red margins. The disease and lesions are: A. Measles and Koplik's spots B. AHGS vesicles
Last Answer : A. Measles and Koplik’s spots
Description : A 10 years-old boy presents with small greyish white lesion surrounded by a red halos on the soft palate and tonsillar pillars, small vesicles are found. He has fever and pain in the ear. The MOST probable diagnosis is?********** M07 A. Herpangina
Last Answer : A. Herpangina
Description : A young child suffering from fever and sore throat began to complain of lacrimation. On examination, follicles were found in the lower palpebral conjunctiva with tender preauricular lymph ... is: a. Trachoma b. Staphylococal conjunctivitis c. Adenoviral conjunctivitis d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
Last Answer : ANSWER: C
Description : Why in inflammatory and infectious conditions may clinical signs related to the lymphatic system occur?
Last Answer : The lymph nodes, or lymph glands, have lymphoid tissue that produces lymphocytes (a type of leukocyte). In inflammatory and infectious conditions the enlargement of lymph nodes of the ... may suggest inflammation, infection or other diseases. The Circulatory System - Image Diversity: lymphadenopathy
Description : Clinical signs of Clostridium botulinum infection in chicken are characterized by A A. Progressive paralysis B. Respiratory signs C. Excitement D. None of the these
Last Answer : Progressive paralysis
Description : In acute cases of ulceratie enteritis birds may show A A. no clinical signs B. constipation C. emaciation D. None of the these
Last Answer : no clinical signs
Description : Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of ... minutes after exposure to latex, an immediate hypersensitivity (type I) allergic reaction has occurred.
Last Answer : a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.
Description : In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II ... I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry
Last Answer : a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure
Description : A middle aged female presented with following symptoms - Hirsutism, fragility of skin, with easy bruising, broad purplish striae and signs of proximal myopathy. The first step in ... Exclude exogenous Glucocorticoid use 3) Advice plasma ACTH estimation 4) Advice dexamethasone overnight test
Last Answer : Correct Answer: 2) Exclude exogenous Glucocorticoid use
Description : A planning method, which provides details of the work to accomplish, but also provide some preliminary description of the work to be done in later phases is called : 1. Progressive detailing 2. Rolling wave 3. Strategic 4. Operational
Last Answer : 2. Rolling wave
Description : Preliminary sorting of mails is done by a) Mail Office b) Returned Letter Office c) Post Office d) Head office
Last Answer : c) Post Office
Description : Which of the following survey are required to be done before the construction of new railway line. (a) Traffic survey (b) Reconnaessarice survey (c) Preliminary survey (d) Final location survey (e) All the above
Last Answer : e) All the above
Description : What are the signs of having a feverish dog?
Last Answer : The average body temperature of dogs is between 38 and 39 degrees. Small dogs should be higher, ie close to 39 degrees, and large dogs should be close to 38 degrees. If we want to make sure our ... lie down and stare sadly, possibly sleep. Higher fever can cause tremors, as they can catch a cold.
Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal ... of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS
Last Answer : Answer: a, c The therapy of MOFS is directed towards interrupting the involving pathophysiologic process and providing an optimal physiologic environment for healing and recovery. ... Enteral absorption and processing of nutrients appears superior to TPN and lessens overall complications
Description : Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for ... transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission
Last Answer : Answer: c, d The most common infectious diseases transmitted during blood transfusions include viral hepatitis, CMV, and HIV infection. Post-transfusion hepatitis in 90% of cases consists of ... infectious disease transmission, the risks of HIV transmission is markedly less than that of hepatitis
Description : Opioid analgesics are either contraindicated or must be used with extreme caution in several clinical situations. For morphine, such situations do not include (a) Aqueous diffusion (b) Aqueous hydrolysis (c) Lipid diffusion (d) Pinocytosis or endocytosis (e) Special carrier transport
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : What is the time period covered by the question about whether the Service member has had a past diagnosis for any mental health problem such as PTSD depression anxiety disorder or alcohol abuse or sub?
Last Answer : One year
Description : does medicare cover a PET scan CT scans done & were inconclusive .s Additional testing is required to obtain a diagnosis ?
Last Answer : Yes Medicare does cover PET scans but only under the following 5 related applications: 1.Solitary Pulmonary Nodule 2.Staging of lung cancer. 3. Staging of Lymphoma. 4. Staging of Melanoma and ... cancer. In your case that a diagnosis is still inconclusive Medicare will not cover the test.
Description : What is to be done with instruments after surgically treating a patient with confirmed diagnosis of hepatitis B,** A. Soak them in hypochlorite solution Milton B. Sterilize, scrub ... Handle them with two pairs of household rubber gloves D. Scrub them with iodine surgical solution
Last Answer : B. Sterilize, scrub and sterilize
Description : A limited company makes a net profit of Rs. 2,00,000 after writing off preliminary expenses amounting to Rs. 20,000 and providing for depreciation on assets amounting to Rs. 40,000 and gain of Rs. 10,000 on sale of a piece of ... 2,00,000 (B) Rs. 2,40,000 (C) Rs. 2,50,000 (D) Rs. 2,60,000
Last Answer : Answer: Rs. 2,50,000
Description : During preliminary treatment of a sewage A. Oil and grease are removed from skimming tanks B. Floating materials are removed by screening C. Girt and sand are removed by girt chambers D. All the above
Last Answer : ANS: D
Description : For the preliminary breaking of hard rock, we use a (A) Gyratory crusher (B) Ball mill (C) Tube mill (D) Squirrel-cage disintegrator
Last Answer : (A) Gyratory crusher
Description : A __________ mill is a revolving mill divided into two or more sections by perforated partitions in which preliminary grinding takes place at one end and the finishing grinding at the discharge end. (A) Compartment (B) Tube (C) Rod (D) Pebble
Last Answer : (A) Compartmen
Description : In the ____ stage, of project identification the project ideas generated above are screened and a preliminary exercise is conducted to weed out the bad or unviable ideas.
Last Answer : Ans. Screening
Description : Earned value management integrates scope, cost, and schedule measures to: A. assess project performance and progress. B. develop a preliminary budget. C. assess communication effectiveness among project team members. D. assess whether all requirements were met.
Last Answer : A. assess project performance and progress.
Description : You are the project manager working on a research project for a new drug treatment. Your preliminary project schedule runs past the due date for a federal grant application. The manager of the R&D ... . A. Crashing B. fast tracking C. resource leveling D. adjusting the resource calendar
Last Answer : A. Crashing
Description : According to the PMBOK Guide, the project manager is identified and assigned during which process? A. Prior to beginning the Develop Project Charter process B. At the conclusion of the ... . Prior to beginning the Planning processes D. Prior to beginning the Preliminary Scope Statement process
Last Answer : C. Prior to beginning the Planning processes
Description : Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate? 1. Preliminary 2. Definitive 3. Order of magnitude 4. Conceptual
Last Answer : 2. Definitive
Description : A decree, when an adjudication completely disposes of the suit, is a (a) Preliminary decree (b) Final decree (c) Partly preliminary and partly final (d) None of these
Last Answer : (b) Final decree
Description : A decree, when further proceedings have to be taken before the suit can be completely disposed of, is a (a) Final decree (b) Preliminary decree (c) Preliminary decree and partly final decree (d) None of these
Last Answer : (b) Preliminary decree
Description : If an appeal against a preliminary decree succeeds, the final decree (a) Can be passed (b) Can or cannot be passed (c) Automatically fails (d) None
Last Answer : (c) Automatically fails
Description : Rejection of an application for condonation of delay and consequent dismissal of appeal as time barred is (a) A decree (b) Preliminary decree (c) Not a decree (d) None
Last Answer : (c) Not a decree
Description : Decree can be— (a) Preliminary (b) Final (c) First preliminary then final (d) Either preliminary or final
Last Answer : (d) Either preliminary or final
Description : Order rejecting the plaint for non payment of a Court fee is ____ (a) Decree (b) Preliminary decree (c) Not a decree (d) None
Last Answer : (a) Decree
Description : An index of preliminary receipt numbers issued will be maintained in Form ___ and kept in the custody of the ___ a) MS-2, Postmaster b) MS-15, Postmaster b) MS-15, SB PA d) None of these
Last Answer : b) MS-15, Postmaster
Description : The Postmaster will grant the applicant a preliminary receipt in Form a) NC 12 b) NC 4a c) NC 5 d) NC 28
Last Answer : b) NC 4a
Description : Mark the correct option a) SB 26 denotes preliminary receipt b) SB 28 denotes receipts for depositors passbook c) SB 58 denotes long book d) All the above
Last Answer : d) All the above
Description : A landscape designer uses many __________ in developing the preliminary design for a project. a. Perfect plans b. Bubble diagrams c. Site surveys d. Problem statements
Last Answer : Bubble diagrams
Description : Which of the following statements would least likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter? a. Our engagement is subject to the risk that material errors, fraud, and defalcations, if they exist, ... services are based on our regular per diem rates, plus travel and other out-of-pocket expenses
Last Answer : After performing our preliminary analytical procedures we will discuss with you the other procedures we consider necessary to complete the engagement.
Description : .Prior to beginning the field work on a new audit engagement in which a CPA does not possess expertise in the industry in which the client operates, the CPA should a. Reduce audit risk by lowering ... the industry. d. Obtain a knowledge of matters that relates to the nature of the entity's business
Last Answer : Obtain a knowledge of matters that relates to the nature of the entity's business