What is the best clinical course of therapy in HIV bone disease?

What is the best clinical course of therapy in HIV bone disease?
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The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at specific identified pathogens once sensitivity reports are available (directed therapy). The following statement(s) is/are true concerning these therapies. a. The issue of toxic side effects of antibiotics is only important in dealing with emperic therapy b. Single agent therapy is generally inferior to specific multi-drug therapy (aminoglycoside plus an antianaerobic agent) for the treatment of secondary bacterial peritonitis due to appendicitis, diverticulitis, penetrating gastrointestinal injury, or anastomotic leak c. With the empiric use of antibiotics, a diligent search for the septic source should be undertaken and co

Description : The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at ... which polymicrobial infection is identified, specifically-directed treatment for the predominant organism is satisfactory

Last Answer : Answer: c The use of empiric therapy without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data is appropriate when there is sufficient clinical evidence to support the diagnosis such that it would ... components of the infection if the body site is such that these microorganisms may be present

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for blood administration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the transmission of infectious disease during blood transfusions? a. Post-transfusion hepatitis is usually due to hepatitis B b. Hepatitis and HIV transmission is greatest with the administration of pooled plasma products such as serum albumin c. The most important cause of post-transfusion disease in immunosuppressed patients is CMV infection d. The risk of HIV transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Description : Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for ... transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The most common infectious diseases transmitted during blood transfusions include viral hepatitis, CMV, and HIV infection. Post-transfusion hepatitis in 90% of cases consists of ... infectious disease transmission, the risks of HIV transmission is markedly less than that of hepatitis

The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3 months B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Description : The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the ... 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Last Answer : B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs

Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Description : Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and ... for the overall treatment of HIV disease; it is not specific for treatment of skin conditions.

Last Answer : a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active ... conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on three factors: the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and ... CD4+ T cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 55,000 copies/mL (RT-PCR assay).

Last Answer : a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of ... : the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4 years old with enzyme deficiency of

Description : The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4 years old with enzyme deficiency of

Last Answer : The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4 years old with enzyme deficiency ... tyrosine oxidase C. monaine oxidase D. monamine oxidase

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal clinical parameters such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and urine output ensures optimal resuscitation in most patients c. Branch chain amino acids play and important role in the nutritional support of the patient d. Because of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal ... of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Last Answer : Answer: a, c The therapy of MOFS is directed towards interrupting the involving pathophysiologic process and providing an optimal physiologic environment for healing and recovery. ... Enteral absorption and processing of nutrients appears superior to TPN and lessens overall complications

The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating (a) diabetes mellitus (b) chicken pox (c) rheumatoid arthritis (d) adenosine deaminase deficiency.

Description : The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating (a) diabetes mellitus (b) chicken pox (c) rheumatoid arthritis (d) adenosine deaminase deficiency.

Last Answer : (d) adenosine deaminase deficiency.

Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa stimulates fibroblast collagen synthesis c. IL-1 and TNFa have opposite effects on the healing of bone d. In human clinical trials, EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Description : Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa ... EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Last Answer : Answer: a, d IL-1 appears to be important in the process of normal wound repair. IL-1 has been shown to stimulate skin fibroblast and keratinocyte growth, as well as ... that recombinant EGF enhances keratinocyte migration. EGF is also a potent chemoattractant for granulation tissue fibroblasts

A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) have been proven correct by prospective trials? a. Preoperative TPN is beneficial in surgical patients with severe preoperative nutrition b. Postoperative TPN is of value following pancreatic resection c. Routine use of perioperative (including prior to the procedure) TPN is of benefit in patients undergoing hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Description : A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) ... hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Numerous clinical trials have failed to yield a consensus with regard to the efficacy of TPN in cancer patients. In 1991, a multicenter VA cooperative trial demonstrated ... patients receiving bone marrow transplantation has also been shown to be a valuable component of overall care

What is the most important reason for restricted clinical use of chloramphenicol ? (a) Its narrow spectrum of activity (b) Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance (c) Its potential to cause bone marrow depression (d) Its potential to cause superinfections

Description : What is the most important reason for restricted clinical use of chloramphenicol ? (a) Its narrow spectrum of activity (b) Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance (c) Its potential to cause bone marrow depression (d) Its potential to cause superinfections

Last Answer : Ans: C

In necrotic enteritis duration of the clinical course is A A. very short (few hours) B. 3-5 Days C. more than a week D. None of the these

Description : In necrotic enteritis duration of the clinical course is A A. very short (few hours) B. 3-5 Days C. more than a week D. None of the these

Last Answer : very short (few hours)

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (A) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy (B) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence deaminase deficiency (C) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV infection (D) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis (A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Description : Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (A) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy (B) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence deaminase deficiency (C) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV infection (D) PCR (iv) Bacillus ... (i) (iv) (c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Last Answer : (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

he initial therapy in HIV patients is, A. Debridement and antimicrobial mouth rinses B. Root planing and surgical approach

Description : he initial therapy in HIV patients is, A. Debridement and antimicrobial mouth rinses B. Root planing and surgical approach

Last Answer : A. Debridement and antimicrobial mouth rinses

The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Description : The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Last Answer : D. Any of the above

Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

Which of the following is true? Hypochromic anaemia is not due to iron deficiency except (A) Serum ‘Fe’ is high (B) Normal/low transferrin (C) Stainable iron in bone marrow (D) Iron therapy is affective

Description : Which of the following is true? Hypochromic anaemia is not due to iron deficiency except (A) Serum ‘Fe’ is high (B) Normal/low transferrin (C) Stainable iron in bone marrow (D) Iron therapy is affective

Last Answer : Answer : D

The genetic defect–adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by (a) administering adenosine deaminase activators (b) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages (c) enzyme replacement therapy (d) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA

Description : The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by (a) administering adenosine deaminase activators (b) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into ... replacement therapy (d) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA

Last Answer : (b) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages

Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Description : Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) ... the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Last Answer : a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients.

Benefits of tamoxifen citrate therapy include the following except: A. Reduction in recurrence rate of breast cancer B. Improved bone mass C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes D. Improved lipid profile

Description : Benefits of tamoxifen citrate therapy include the following except: A. Reduction in recurrence rate of breast cancer B. Improved bone mass C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes D. Improved lipid profile

Last Answer : C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes

Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right middle lobectomy for bronchogenic cancer in a 65-year-old smoker. C. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty for chronic duodenal ulcer disease in a 50-year-old who had chest film findings of old, healed tuberculosis. D. Right hemicolectomy in an obese 60-year-old smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.

Description : Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right ... smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.

Last Answer : Answer: BDCAE DISCUSSION: If one considers the constellation of risk factors for pulmonary complications that is provided in tabular form in the accompanying chapter, one should ... is associated with relatively little postoperative pain, and provides free and unrestricted respiratory function

Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made at end inspiration, to minimize ventilatory artifacts. B. Continuous SvO 2 monitoring based on the technique of reflectance spectrophotometry has been shown to be accurate and reliable. C. Direct measurement of gastric intramucosal pH can be provided by gastrointestinal tonometry. D. Hyperlactatemia may be seen in a number of clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.

Description : Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made ... clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.

Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Many different monitoring techniques may be used to assess the adequacy of therapy for shock. The pulmonary artery catheter can provide important hemodynamic and oxygen ... also be seen with liver disease, toxin ingestion, and hypermetabolic states not associated with shock

What are the characteristic clinical features of von Gierkeís disease?

Description : What are the characteristic clinical features of von Gierkeís disease?

Last Answer : Fasting hypoglycemia, which does not respond to adrenaline is very characteristic.

Clinical Mareks disease can appear as early as B A. 1 week old birds B. 8 weeks old birds C. not before 30 weeks of age D. None of these

Description : Clinical Mareks disease can appear as early as B A. 1 week old birds B. 8 weeks old birds C. not before 30 weeks of age D. None of these

Last Answer : 8 weeks old birds

Clinical disease of Avian encephalomyelitis occurs in A A. chicks up to one week of age B. chicks of 4 weeks of age C. in old birds D. None of these

Description : Clinical disease of Avian encephalomyelitis occurs in A A. chicks up to one week of age B. chicks of 4 weeks of age C. in old birds D. None of these

Last Answer : chicks up to one week of age

Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction. Asthma is the disease described. c) The presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of two or three months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchitis is the disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Description : Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in ... disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Last Answer : a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD.

Sjogren’s syndrome is a chronic disease characterized by which of the following clinical feature: Options: 1) Esophageal dysmotility 2) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca 3) Widespread damage to small blood vessels 4) Libmann Sachs Endocardititis

Description : Sjogren’s syndrome is a chronic disease characterized by which of the following clinical feature: Options: 1) Esophageal dysmotility 2) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca 3) Widespread damage to small blood vessels 4) Libmann Sachs Endocardititis

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 2) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

What is the MOST significant clinical feature of periodontal disease:** A. Bleeding B. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva

Description : What is the MOST significant clinical feature of periodontal disease:** A. Bleeding B. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva

Last Answer : B. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva

A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the kidney presented with radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. The disease that you would immediately suggest is,** M07 A. Diabetes B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Osteoporosis E. Adrenal insufficiency

Description : A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the kidney presented with radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. The disease that you would immediately suggest ... A. Diabetes B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Osteoporosis E. Adrenal insufficiency

Last Answer : C. Hyperparathyroidism

Study of individual's immune response to a certain disease is called as __________. a. Clinical pathology b. Surgical pathology c. Neuropathology d. Immunopathology

Description : Study of individual's immune response to a certain disease is called as __________. a. Clinical pathology b. Surgical pathology c. Neuropathology d. Immunopathology

Last Answer : d. Immunopathology

Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Last Answer : C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation

" Hepatitis B - A Deadly Disease Like HIV / AIDS" Explained ?

Last Answer : The deadly disease HIV / AIDS is not unknown to anyone today. Due to the widespread publicity in the media, a lot of awareness has been created in this regard. According to a survey conducted by the ... to have symptoms of the disease. In some cases, it can lead to liver failure and even death.

Do you believe our scientific will discover a medicine to complete HIV disease ?

Description : Do you believe our scientific will discover a medicine to complete HIV disease ?

Last Answer : I do believe that Science could come up with the answer on how to cure HIV disease. I also believe they could come up with all natural ingredients, although medicine field do not support this one ... scientists or even people on the medical field that keep on studying and testing how to cure HIV.

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. ... , carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a syndrome caused by the human retrovirus (HIV-1) that infects T lymphocytes and causes severe immunosuppression. Individuals who ... to prolong survival when administered early in the course of disease and is considered routine therapy

What is the disease caused by HIV ?

Description : What is the disease caused by HIV ?

Last Answer : The disease caused by HIV is AIDS

Which disease can not be treated at all with any of the drugs known thus far (a) Malaria (b) Lyme (c) Tuberculosis (d) HIV

Description : Which disease can not be treated at all with any of the drugs known thus far (a) Malaria (b) Lyme (c) Tuberculosis (d) HIV

Last Answer : Ans:(b)

HIV is a - (1) Combination of disease symptoms - (2) developmental index (3) viral disease (4) retrovirus

Description : HIV is a - (1) Combination of disease symptoms - (2) developmental index (3) viral disease (4) retrovirus

Last Answer : (4) retrovirus Explanation: The retrovirus then integrates its viral DNA into the DNA of the host cell, which allows the retrovirus to replicate. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is a retrovirus.

Which disease is caused by the infection of HIV virus?

Description : Which disease is caused by the infection of HIV virus?

Last Answer : AIDS

: _____ is an exaggerated or inappropriate immune defense that is causing the problems in an affected individual. a. Hypersensitivity b. Autoimmune disease c. AIDS d. HIV

Description : : _____ is an exaggerated or inappropriate immune defense that is causing the problems in an affected individual. a. Hypersensitivity b. Autoimmune disease c. AIDS d. HIV

Last Answer : a. Hypersensitivity

An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS. a. 1,000; stage II b. 700; stage I c. 400; stage III d. 400; stage IV

Description : An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS. a. 1,000; stage II b. 700; stage I c. 400; stage III d. 400; stage IV

Last Answer : a. 1,000; stage II

Which of the following viruses has a vaccine to prevent it? a. HPV b. HIV c. fifths disease d. herpes simplex I

Description : Which of the following viruses has a vaccine to prevent it? a. HPV b. HIV c. fifths disease d. herpes simplex I

Last Answer : a. HPV

Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Description : Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more ... Decrease in normal skin flora Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.

Last Answer : a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient?** A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

Description : Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient?** A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from ... B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

Last Answer : B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient

ORT (Oral Rehydration Therapy) is associated with the treatment of which disease? -General Knowledge

Description : ORT (Oral Rehydration Therapy) is associated with the treatment of which disease? -General Knowledge

Last Answer : The answer is 'Diarrhea'

ORT (Oral Rehydration Therapy) is associated with the treatment of which disease? -General Knowledge

Description : ORT (Oral Rehydration Therapy) is associated with the treatment of which disease? -General Knowledge

Last Answer : answer: