Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action: A. Ergometrine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Dihydroergotoxine

Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action: A. Ergometrine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Dihydroergotoxine
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Ergometrine
by

Related questions

The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is: A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotoxine D. Tolazoline

Description : The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is: A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotoxine D. Tolazoline

Last Answer : B. Ergotamine

Select the ergot compound which is primarily used for dementia: A. Bromocriptine B. Ergotamine C. Codergocrine D. Methysergide

Description : Select the ergot compound which is primarily used for dementia: A. Bromocriptine B. Ergotamine C. Codergocrine D. Methysergide

Last Answer : C. Codergocrine

Indications of ergometrine include the following except: A. Postpartum haemorrhage B. Inadequate uterine involution C. Uterine inertia during labour D. Uterine atony after cesarean section

Description : Indications of ergometrine include the following except: A. Postpartum haemorrhage B. Inadequate uterine involution C. Uterine inertia during labour D. Uterine atony after cesarean section

Last Answer : C. Uterine inertia during labour

Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Description : Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle

The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action

Description : The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action

Last Answer : A. High oral bioavailability

Dihydroergotamine (DHE) differs from ergotamine in the following respect: A. It is a more potent oxytocic B. It has antiemetic property C. It has high oral bioavailability D. It is a more potent α adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor

Description : Dihydroergotamine (DHE) differs from ergotamine in the following respect: A. It is a more potent oxytocic B. It has antiemetic property C. It has high oral bioavailability D. It is a more potent α adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor

Last Answer : D. It is a more potent α adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor

The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an a adrenergic blocker is (a) Phenoxybenzamine (b) Ergotamine (c) Dihydroergotoxine (d) Tolazoline

Description : The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an a adrenergic blocker is (a) Phenoxybenzamine (b) Ergotamine (c) Dihydroergotoxine (d) Tolazoline

Last Answer : Ans: B

The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is: A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotoxine D. Tolazoline

Description : The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is: A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotoxine D. Tolazoline

Last Answer : B. Ergotamine

Ergometrine is contraindicated in the following conditions except: A. Multiparity B. Toxaemia of pregnancy C. Pelvic sepsis D. Peripheral vascular disease

Description : Ergometrine is contraindicated in the following conditions except: A. Multiparity B. Toxaemia of pregnancy C. Pelvic sepsis D. Peripheral vascular disease

Last Answer : A. Multiparity

Ergotamine relieves migraine by: A. Blocking vascular α adrenergic receptors B. Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors C. Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Description : Ergotamine relieves migraine by: A. Blocking vascular α adrenergic receptors B. Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors C. Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Last Answer : D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine for augmenting labour because: A. It has brief and titratable action B. It is less likely to cause foetal anoxia C. It is less likely to impede foetal descent D. All of the above

Description : Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine for augmenting labour because: A. It has brief and titratable action B. It is less likely to cause foetal anoxia C. It is less likely to impede foetal descent D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment of migraine attacks C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Description : Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment ... resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases

Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : D. Furosemide

Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Description : Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Last Answer : B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris

Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is: A. Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values D. Insoluble in water

Description : Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is: A. Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values D. Insoluble in water

Last Answer : C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values

Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Description : Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Last Answer : C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation

Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Description : Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Last Answer : C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation

Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Description : Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Last Answer : A. Cefdinir

The drug of choice for controlling postpartum haemorrhage is: A. Oxytocin B. Methylergometrine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Prostaglandin E2

Description : The drug of choice for controlling postpartum haemorrhage is: A. Oxytocin B. Methylergometrine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Prostaglandin E2

Last Answer : B. Methylergometrine

The most prominent action of leukotriene B4 is: A. Vasodilatation B. Uterine contraction C. Platelet aggregation D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Description : The most prominent action of leukotriene B4 is: A. Vasodilatation B. Uterine contraction C. Platelet aggregation D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Last Answer : D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Description : Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Last Answer : . Ormeloxifen

Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools

Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound

Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Description : Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

In the intact animal H2 receptor antagonists potentiate the following action of histamine: A. Cardiac stimulation B. Fall in blood pressure C. Uterine relaxation D. Bronchospasm

Description : In the intact animal H2 receptor antagonists potentiate the following action of histamine: A. Cardiac stimulation B. Fall in blood pressure C. Uterine relaxation D. Bronchospasm

Last Answer : D. Bronchospasm

Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether

Description : Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether

Last Answer : B. Halothane

The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and LH release C. Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Description : The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and ... Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Last Answer : B. Suppression of FSH and LH release

The following is not true of naltrexone: A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphine B. It is active orally C. It has a long duration of action D. It can reduce craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics

Description : The following is not true of naltrexone: A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphine B. It is active orally C. It has a long duration of action D. It can reduce craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics

Last Answer : A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphin

Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

Description : Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

Last Answer : A. Quiniodochlor

Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex

Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy

Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Description : Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Last Answer : C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate

Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Description : Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Last Answer : C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate

The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are more effective in migraine: A. Without aura B. With aura C. Than ergotamine D. When combined with propranolol

Description : The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are more effective in migraine: A. Without aura B. With aura C. Than ergotamine D. When combined with propranolol

Last Answer : A. Without aura

The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis

Description : The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis

Last Answer : B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis

The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis

The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

Description : The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

Last Answer : B. Hydrochlorothiazide

The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Description : The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Last Answer : A. Mexiletine

The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

6.12 The most prominent action of bromocriptine is: A. Dopamine D2 agonism B. Dopamine D2 antagonism C. Dopamine D1 antagonism D. α adrenergic antagonism

Description : 6.12 The most prominent action of bromocriptine is: A. Dopamine D2 agonism B. Dopamine D2 antagonism C. Dopamine D1 antagonism D. α adrenergic antagonism

Last Answer : A. Dopamine D2 agonism

Stimulant purgatives are contraindicated in the following: A. Bed ridden patients B. Before abdominal radiography C. Spastic constipation D. Atonic constipation

Description : Stimulant purgatives are contraindicated in the following: A. Bed ridden patients B. Before abdominal radiography C. Spastic constipation D. Atonic constipation

Last Answer : C. Spastic constipation

Clozapine is considered to be an atypical neuroleptic because: A. It has weak antidopaminergic action but high antipsychotic efficacy B. Its side effect profile is different from that of chlorpromazine C. It is not a phenothiazine derivative D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Clozapine is considered to be an atypical neuroleptic because: A. It has weak antidopaminergic action but high antipsychotic efficacy B. Its side effect profile is different from that of chlorpromazine C. It is not a phenothiazine derivative D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis

Description : The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis

Last Answer : B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis